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The Proof is Trivial!

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Original post by Star-girl
I think you, bananarama and I (once I've corrected it) should all post our solutions as they seem to be different. :cute:



See above.



No worries. :tongue:


I would, but I still have a stray minus :tongue: Care to assist?

Spoiler

Reply 361
Guys, can't you do the question by considering v2=0v^2=0 ie. by considering the discriminant of a quadratic in xx. In fact I tried and I got something very similar but a factor of g2g^2 off.
Reply 362
Original post by bananarama2
I would, but I still have a stray minus :tongue: Care to assist?

Spoiler


In line 6 you have inexplicably multiplied by -1!

Oops, I misread your limits!
(edited 11 years ago)
OK guys, here was how I did the question before posting it:

Spoiler

Original post by DJMayes
OK guys, here was how I did the question before posting it:

Spoiler



You've got less than and I have equals... uh oh... :lol:
Original post by Star-girl
You've got less than and I have equals... uh oh... :lol:


The question has to by nature be an inequality, as there will be more than one value for v which is sufficiently slow to prevent it from falling.
Reply 366
Original post by DJMayes
x

Why is your PI negative?
Reply 367
Problem 55*

The problem is concerned with constructing lines of length root n n , where n n is not a perfect square. Suppose you only have a ruler which can only measure integer lengths and assume you can draw perfect right-angled triangles. Show that unless n n is of the form 4k2\displaystyle 4k-2 , then you only ever need one right-angled triangle to construct a line of length root n n , e.g. To construct 2 \sqrt 2 , you create a {1,1,2} \displaystyle \left \{ 1, 1, \sqrt2 \right \} triangle, to construct 3 \sqrt3 you create a {1,3,2} \displaystyle \left \{ 1, \sqrt3, 2 \right \} triangle.
(edited 11 years ago)
Original post by DJMayes
The question has to by nature be an inequality, as there will be more than one value for v which is sufficiently slow to prevent it from falling.


Ah yes, I suppose. So equality denotes the maximum value of v^2, then?
Original post by und
Why is your PI negative?


Could you elaborate? As far as I can see it isn't...
Original post by bananarama2
I would, but I still have a stray minus :tongue: Care to assist?

Spoiler



I will indeed, I just need to first finish all the modifications on the first part of my solution. :smile:
When I come to the student room Mr M always turns up, like :

[video="youtube;-rPEguSf35c"]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-rPEguSf35c[/video]
Reply 372
Solution 50

Using uu as the initial velocity.

Since the function of vv is continuous, if v0+v \to 0^{+} for some xx, then at that instant the frictional force must be greater than the weight, thus the rope will remain stationery. It remains to find a range of values of u u for which vv will become 0 0 .

Creating and solving the differential equation, we obtain v2=g(μ+1)x2l2μgx+u2v^2=\frac{g(\mu +1)x^2}{l}-2\mu g x+u^2, so if vv is to be 0 0 for some positive xx, then there must exist a positive root x=μl±(μgl)2u2gl(μ+1)g(μ+1)x=\frac{\mu l \pm \sqrt{(\mu gl)^2-u^{2}gl(\mu +1)}}{g(\mu +1)}, so a necessary and sufficient condition (assuming all the constant terms are positive) is u2μ2gl(μ+1)u^2 \leq \frac{{\mu}^{2}gl}{(\mu +1)} as required.

If the rope has mass mm, then the impulse applied to accelerate the rope to a speed uu is given by the change of momentum mumu. Hence Impulse2m2μ2glμ+1\text{Impulse}^2 \leq \frac{{m^{2}\mu}^{2}gl}{\mu +1}, giving the maximum impulse as mμglμ+1m\mu \sqrt{\frac{gl}{\mu+1}}.
(edited 11 years ago)
Original post by Star-girl
Ah yes, I suppose. So equality denotes the maximum value of v^2, then?


No, I don't think so. If you look at my DE equations solution, equality implies that B = 0, which means that there aren't solutions to x' = 0 as it implies A =0, which is impossible.
Reply 374
Original post by DJMayes
Could you elaborate? As far as I can see it isn't...

Sorry, I meant why is it positive? When you plug xx into the DE with a positive complimentary function, the constant term has the wrong sign.
Original post by DJMayes
No, I don't think so. If you look at my DE equations solution, equality implies that B = 0, which means that there aren't solutions to x' = 0 as it implies A =0, which is impossible.


Hmmm... :holmes:
Original post by und
Sorry, I meant why is it positive? When you plug xx into the DE with a positive complimentary function, the constant term has the wrong sign.


No it doesn't, because the co-efficient of x is negative.
Original post by bananarama2
When I come to the student room Mr M always turns up, like :

[video="youtube;-rPEguSf35c"]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-rPEguSf35c[/video]


:rofl::rofl:

Right - I'll have a look now at your solution. Could you check over mine (I've modified it now) as well as it seems to be some discrepancies with DJ's...
Reply 378
Original post by DJMayes
No it doesn't, because the co-efficient of x is negative.

Oh wait nvm... :lol:
(edited 11 years ago)
Original post by bananarama2
When I come to the student room Mr M always turns up, like :

[video="youtube;-rPEguSf35c"]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-rPEguSf35c[/video]


Why run when you can teleport?

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