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F maths AS level help: writing complex numbers in mod-arg form...

Express in the form r(cosØ+isinØ) :

3/(1+i√3)

The 3 is over the whole 1+i√3, hence why I put the denominator in brackets. I know how to work out regular mod-arg form not involving this type of fraction. Do I separate the fraction and then i'll have a real value and imaginary value? Then work it out from there? Also if you know how to do this, I would love it explained. Thanks! I've been ill for a while so my concentration and focus is at its lowest. Any help appreciated.


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Reply 1
Original post by emilierichards
Express in the form r(cosØ+isinØ) :

3/(1+i√3)

The 3 is over the whole 1+i√3, hence why I put the denominator in brackets. I know how to work out regular mod-arg form not involving this type of fraction. Do I separate the fraction and then i'll have a real value and imaginary value? Then work it out from there? Also if you know how to do this, I would love it explained. Thanks! I've been ill for a while so my concentration and focus is at its lowest. Any help appreciated.


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Can you do the mod/arg form for a+ib

Can you rationalise denominators

If the answer to both the above is YES then you are set if the answer to either is NO then that tells you what to go and look at
Reply 2
Original post by emilierichards
Express in the form r(cosØ+isinØ) :

3/(1+i√3)

The 3 is over the whole 1+i√3, hence why I put the denominator in brackets. I know how to work out regular mod-arg form not involving this type of fraction. Do I separate the fraction and then i'll have a real value and imaginary value? Then work it out from there? Also if you know how to do this, I would love it explained. Thanks! I've been ill for a while so my concentration and focus is at its lowest. Any help appreciated.


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just rationalise the denominator
Reply 3
Thanks both of you, I rationalised before but got stuck from there. But i've got it now, thanks


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Reply 4
Original post by muf_mur
just rationalise the denominator


You have the right idea, but the wrong terminology: we don't particularly want to rationalise the denominator, but to make it real, by using an application of the d-o-2-s. For example, if the problem was based on the expression 31+3i\frac{3}{1+3i}, then there would be no irrational numbers in sight, but the method would remain the same.
Reply 5
Original post by atsruser
You have the right idea, but the wrong terminology: we don't particularly want to rationalise the denominator, but to make it real, by using an application of the d-o-2-s. For example, if the problem was based on the expression 31+3i\frac{3}{1+3i}, then there would be no irrational numbers in sight, but the method would remain the same.


There may be no irrational numbers

But do you believe that the denominator is rational

After multiplying by the complex conjugate - will the denominator be rational
Reply 6
Original post by TenOfThem
There may be no irrational numbers

But do you believe that the denominator is rational

After multiplying by the complex conjugate - will the denominator be rational


The denominator is not rational due to the presence of an imaginary part. However, if we start with 331/4+i\frac{3}{3^{1/4}+i}, then we will have:

331/4+i=331/4+i×31/4i31/4i=3(31/4i)3+1\displaystyle \frac{3}{3^{1/4}+i} = \frac{3}{3^{1/4}+i} \times \frac{3^{1/4}-i}{3^{1/4}-i} = \frac{3(3^{1/4}-i)}{\sqrt{3}+1}

whose denominator is still irrational.

So the supposed "rationalisation", in this case, has generated an irrational number in the denominator. It has, however, still generated a real number, which is why it is incorrect to refer to this method as "rationalisation"; we need an expression like "realising", or something.

The point is the presence of rational or irrational numbers in the denom. is irrelevant; we are interested in the presence or absence of real or complex numbers.
(edited 10 years ago)
Reply 7
Thought i had it but I don't. The answer is 3/2(cos(-π/3)+isin(-π/3)).
Someone explain this to me so I can correct my misconceptions.


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Reply 8
Original post by emilierichards
Thought i had it but I don't. The answer is 3/2(cos(-π/3)+isin(-π/3)).
Someone explain this to me so I can correct my misconceptions.


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Heya, first of all you need times by the complex conjugate:

31+i3=31+i3×1i31i3.... \frac{3}{1+i\sqrt{3}}=\frac{3}{1+i\sqrt{3}}\times\frac{1-i\sqrt{3}}{1-i\sqrt{3}}....

your answer will look similar to this:
a(b3)i4 \frac{a-(b\sqrt{3})i}{4}


From this point i'll solve for a similar problem so you can follow the steps
You can then find |r| by using pythagoras and then that will be the r(cosx+isinx) e.g for 2(23)i4 \frac{2-(2\sqrt{3})i}{4}

r=(0.5)2+(0.53)2=1\left | r \right |=\sqrt{(0.5)^2+(-0.5\sqrt{3})^2}= 1

Then you need to find theta, if you draw a quick sketch you'll see that the point is in the fourth quadrant so your answer is negative..

234÷24=3 -\frac{2\sqrt{3}}{4} \div \frac{2}{4}= -\sqrt{3}
you will do then do tan1(3)\tan^{-1}(-\sqrt{3})

so the final answer is... 1(cos(π3)+isin(π3))1(cos(-\frac{\pi}{3})+isin(-\frac{\pi}{3}))

If you want the answer i'm happy to help
(edited 10 years ago)
Reply 9
Original post by emilierichards
Thought i had it but I don't. The answer is 3/2(cos(-π/3)+isin(-π/3)).
Someone explain this to me so I can correct my misconceptions.


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31+i3=31+i3×1i31i3\frac{3}{1+i\sqrt{3}} = \frac{3}{1+i\sqrt{3}} \times \frac{1-i\sqrt{3}}{1-i\sqrt{3}}

What's the next step?
Reply 10
Original post by tigerz
Heya, first of all you need times by the complex conjugate:

313=313×1+31+3.... \frac{3}{1-\sqrt{3}}=\frac{3}{1-\sqrt{3}}\times\frac{1+\sqrt{3}}{1+\sqrt{3}}....


That isn't the question that was posed.
Reply 11
Original post by atsruser
That isn't the question that was posed.


damn >.< I swear I make a ridiculous amount of mistakes, sorry about that, will correct :smile:

edit: switched the signs :facepalm: should be correct now
(edited 10 years ago)
Reply 12
Original post by tigerz
damn >.< I swear I make a ridiculous amount of mistakes, sorry about that, will correct :smile:

edit: switched the signs :facepalm: should be correct now


You'd better put in the ii, too :smile:
Original post by atsruser
The denominator is not rational due to the presence of an imaginary part. However, if we start with 331/4+i\frac{3}{3^{1/4}+i}, then we will have:

331/4+i=331/4+i×31/4i31/4i=3(31/4i)3+1\displaystyle \frac{3}{3^{1/4}+i} = \frac{3}{3^{1/4}+i} \times \frac{3^{1/4}-i}{3^{1/4}-i} = \frac{3(3^{1/4}-i)}{\sqrt{3}+1}

whose denominator is still irrational.

So the supposed "rationalisation", in this case, has generated an irrational number in the denominator. It has, however, still generated a real number, which is why it is incorrect to refer to this method as "rationalisation"; we need an expression like "realising", or something.

The point is the presence of rational or irrational numbers in the denom. is irrelevant; we are interested in the presence or absence of real or complex numbers.




My mistake - I missed the root3 :smile:

I just felt that the correction was un-necessary even in terms of terminology
Reply 14
Original post by atsruser
You'd better put in the ii, too :smile:


Right, I think I need to go back to bed :colondollar: Thank you haha
Reply 15
Original post by TenOfThem
My mistake - I missed the root3 :smile:


You didn't miss the root three - that was only in my example. I was merely pointing out an example that shows that we can perfectly well "realise" a complex denominator without having to rationalise it.

Making real and making rational are independent operations.

I just felt that the correction was un-necessary even in terms of terminology


This terminology is indeed used, but it's clearly misleading, and wrong, and it grates on me. But it's unnecessary in the sense that the OP is probably more confused than she was at the start.
Thank you so much.


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Reply 17
Original post by emilierichards
Thank you so much.


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So did you figure it out then? I though that you were confused?
I've tried it the way it's been proposed, but I keep getting a surd as r. I keep getting something wrong... Someone show me the full calculation of the original question I asked? I'm so confused.


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Reply 19
Original post by emilierichards
Express in the form r(cosØ+isinØ) :

3/(1+i√3)

The 3 is over the whole 1+i√3, hence why I put the denominator in brackets. I know how to work out regular mod-arg form not involving this type of fraction. Do I separate the fraction and then i'll have a real value and imaginary value? Then work it out from there? Also if you know how to do this, I would love it explained. Thanks! I've been ill for a while so my concentration and focus is at its lowest. Any help appreciated.


Posted from TSR Mobile


Once you've made the denominator real (I refuse to use "realize"!) you will have an expression that looks like

something×(1i3)\displaystyle \text{something} \times (1 - i\sqrt{3})

The important thing to note is that the angle will be the same whatever the value of "something" is - the "something" factor just scales a line out from the origin in a particular direction like a vector.

Then your "r" should be the value of something times the modulus of 1i31 - i\sqrt{3}

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