The Student Room Group

[Official Thread] OCR MEI AS Mathematics 2016 (C1, C2 & S1)

Scroll to see replies

Reply 520
Original post by Crozzer24
The final bracket should be multiplied by 3! as there is different combinations within those 3.


aye ****mylife. there goes two marks
Original post by jn998
The Women's percentage was definitely lower than the mens, 15.7<20.2


For this one I made a stupid mistake - I wrote down exactly the right working but accidentally wrote down 2.02 rather than 20.2 even though my working gave the correct answer. How much would I lose for this? I said you couldn't be certain because of the grouped data though- do you think I'd only lose one mark for this?
Reply 522
Original post by kennyboy69.5
same most people did but i think the answer is 4 because you had to find the mid of 27.7 and 27.9 instead of just 27.7 for the LQ. and for UQ mid of 31.6 and 32 instead of just 31.6


think in terms of a cumulative frequency graph. Q3 is 31.6, Q2 is 27.7. IQR=3.9. we could to the 15th value for Q3 from the first value. (left to right, top to bottom).
Reply 523
Original post by jn998
The Women's percentage was definitely lower than the mens, 15.7<20.2


My percentages was exclusive to each data set, so I worked out a percentage for women's and a percentage for men's. Worked out women's was higher than mens
How did you calculate the percentage of the women's shoe question?


Posted from TSR Mobile
Original post by sqr00t
think in terms of a cumulative frequency graph. Q3 is 31.6, Q2 is 27.7. IQR=3.9. we could to the 15th value for Q3 from the first value. (left to right, top to bottom).


No you would only do this for grouped data where there is a degree of error anyway. Because the data was discrete, q1 was 5.5th term and q3 was 15.5th term giving iqr=4
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by sqr00t
You're supposed to use P(X=2).


No I assure you, you don't.
Original post by phoebeisgreat
How did you calculate the percentage of the women's shoe question? [\QUOTE]

For me - I thought well the gap between 80 and 200 is 120, and 100 is 1/6 of the way into that. So 5/6 of the shoes, assuming even distribution, are £100 or more. So I did the frequency multiplied by 5/6 and then divided that by 930 and multiplied by 100 to get the percentage :smile:
Original post by 5431
why have you deleted it you won't actually be disqualified??


I got really paranoid but someone else posted it now
Original post by sqr00t
think in terms of a cumulative frequency graph. Q3 is 31.6, Q2 is 27.7. IQR=3.9. we could to the 15th value for Q3 from the first value. (left to right, top to bottom).


Cumulative frequency is only for continuous/grouped
(edited 7 years ago)
Reply 530
Argh for the IQR part of Q1 I used the 5.25th value for the LQ and the 15.25th value for the UQ so my IQR was 3.95. I don't know if that's right or wrong but it's close to 4 so I still got the outliers bit. I hope I don't lose too many marks for it though... can't believe the first question was the one I left until the end looool
The MS usually accepts lots of different answers bc no one knows the 'correct' method. Like some are told to take the midpoint of the two numbers for the quartiles while some are taught to interpolate using (n+1)/4 and 3(n+1)/4
Original post by Crozzer24
The final bracket should be multiplied by 3! as there is different combinations within those 3.


Oh crap I forgot about that :/ how many marks would I lose?
(edited 7 years ago)
Didn't you guys found the phrasing of Q2 part 3 really weird about the "exactly 2 occurs wins draws loses". I was so stuck and I've definitely lost all my marks there lolol
Reply 534
Original post by ppe/gov&econ
No you would only do this for grouped data where there is a degree of error anyway. Because the data was discrete, q1 was 5.5th term and q3 was 15.5th term giving iqr=4


Going to have to disagree with this. I got LQ 27.75, UQ 31.9 IQR 4.15

The median is the 10.5th value for 20n and the median is equal to double the LQ, hence the LQ is the 5.25th value, making the UQ the 15.75th value.
Original post by jaseho98
Didn't you guys found the phrasing of Q2 part 3 really weird about the "exactly 2 occurs wins draws loses". I was so stuck and I've definitely lost all my marks there lolol



Yeah I did actually - what was it? I worked out the probability of 2 wins, 2 draws or 2 losses but don't know if that's right
Reply 536
Do you guys think since C1 and S1 weren't majorly hard that C2 is going to be solid?
Reply 537
Original post by sqr00t
My percentages was exclusive to each data set, so I worked out a percentage for women's and a percentage for men's. Worked out women's was higher than mens


You'd get 2 out of 3, losing 1 for accuracy.
Original post by erinls2
Yeah I did actually - what was it? I worked out the probability of 2 wins, 2 draws or 2 losses but don't know if that's right


I think that you're right! Not gonna lie, a few of my friends thought the same as you. However, I just really find it stupid because it's not like we don't know how to do it... it's the damn phrasing sometimes which makes you interpret the question wrong. Then boom there goes all the marks ::smile:) damn
Reply 539
Original post by erinls2
Yeah I did actually - what was it? I worked out the probability of 2 wins, 2 draws or 2 losses but don't know if that's right


I drew out the full tree diagram, took about 10 minutes to carefully check through the question and got 0.66. Probably wasted time doing that but I couldn't remember the method you were supposed to use

Quick Reply

Latest

Trending

Trending