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PHYA4 Question 9

Please could someone explain why the answer is 38?

Thanks!
Reply 1
Original post by PhyM23
Please could someone explain why the answer is 38?

Thanks!


They will be in phase again when p has performed 1 more oscillation than q it having the shorter period. This occurs when p has done 39 oscillations (39x1.9) and q 38 oscillations ( 38x1.95)
Reply 2
They will be in phase when p has performed 1 more whol oscillation that q, it having the shorter period. This occurs when q has done 38 ( 38x1.95) and p 39 (39x1.90) oscillations

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