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Why do the French call London Londres?really ! i didn't know that ............... maybe it's because of their accent ? or different language ?
Good question.

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Germany calling Germany 'Deutschland'

I'd rather call it Deutschland too, sounds better
Original post by Trinculo
Same goes for all foreign words.

Like we say "Milan" whereas the Italians call it "Milano". Why don't we just say Milano?

I mean, do the French call New York, Nouveau York?

Makes no sense to me. I highly doubt there is a French word for Leicester.


That's just because of the accent :lol:
No there is no French word for Leicester, neither New York, we tend to say "Nouillorc" tho lol
Reply 5
Original post by FrenchUnicorn
That's just because of the accent :lol:
No there is no French word for Leicester, neither New York, we tend to say "Nouillorc" tho lol


If it were just because of the accent, why is it spelled "Londres"?
Original post by Trinculo
If it were just because of the accent, why is it spelled "Londres"?


What I meant is that when French 1st used the word Londres to name London it was ages ago when London was called Londinium by the Romans
And it turned out that the French were not able to hear properly the word "London" , it's pretty hard to understand the sound "on" after a d when you're French and not used to English

Besides in our language the pronounciation never includes 2 closive consonant next to each other, that's why they had to choose a simple way to pronounce London, and chose Londres. The S seems to be a mistake, there is not really an explanation about it, but it's a silent S anyway (like in Douvres, to name Dover)
(edited 7 years ago)
Reply 7
Original post by FrenchUnicorn
What I meant is that when French 1st used the word Londres to name London it was ages ago when London was called Londinium by the Romans
And it turned out that the French were not able to hear properly the word "London" , it's pretty hard to understand the sound "on" after a d when you're French and not used to English

Besides in our language the pronounciation never includes 2 closive consonant next to each other, that's why they had to choose a simple way to pronounce London, and chose Londres. The S seems to be a mistake, there is not really an explanation about it, but it's a silent S anyway (like in Douvres, to name Dover)

Pardon?
Original post by Trinculo
Pardon?


._. TL;DR : it's because of the accent.
Reply 9
Original post by FrenchUnicorn
._. TL;DR : it's because of the accent.

It was rhetorical.

If it's difficult for French people to hear "on" after "d", they don't seem to have problem with the "pardon" word.
Why do we call trees trees?Why do we call things names?
Why do we exist?Bruh don't go there :hand:
Original post by Trinculo
It was rhetorical.

If it's difficult for French people to hear "on" after "d", they don't seem to have problem with the "pardon" word.

There's no problem precisely because we don't pronounce it the same way.

Original post by CheeseIsVeg
Why do we call trees trees?Why do we call things names?
Why do we exist?Bruh don't go there :hand:


:lol: :lol:
Original post by FrenchUnicorn
There's no problem precisely because we don't pronounce it the same way.



:lol: :lol:


PRSOM :mmm:
Typically other languages only translate capital/major cities in other countries, not every single city as that is just too tedious.

There are always historical linguistic reasons for such pronunciations though.
--
I'd say the many names for "Germany" is more interesting as it all depended on what tribe the countries encountered first usually.

Yet Spanish place names mostly remain the same in English: Barcelona, Madrid, Mexico, Cartagena, etc. Why in Spanish, does London become Londres and New York become Nuevo York?

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