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There is no evidence for God

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Original post by Robby2312
Not really black holes are supposed to be singularities within which all the laws of physics break down.But you wouldnt claim they are outside the universe.There is no reason to bring divinity into this and not a scap of evidence.Extrordinary claims require extraordinary evidence.Where is your evidence?


That is false. Black holes obey the laws of physics.

http://hubblesite.org/explore_astronomy/black_holes/encyc_mod3_q2.html

Maybe it was wrong to bring divinity into this context without me producing any evidence. But there is a possibility that there is a first cause. Some force caused the expansion of a finite number of matter. Right?
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by saran23
That is false. Black holes obey the laws of physics.

http://hubblesite.org/explore_astronomy/black_holes/encyc_mod3_q2.html

Maybe it was wrong to bring divinity into this context without me producing any evidence. But there is a possibility that there is a first cause. Some force caused the expansion of a finite number of matter. Right?


Even if there is some force there is no reason to call it God.It makes no sense to worship a force and thats not what the vast majority of people mean when they say God.And im pretty sure its not false
http://www.physicsoftheuniverse.com/topics_blackholes_singularities.html
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
Because you didn't ask anything specific. What do you want evidence for?


Statement: "Logic works just because it does"

Your comment: Logic is a human construct so one could argue it makes sense because we make it make sense.

Sources have to be reliable and scientifically proven(preferably scientific journals). They must support your comment on the statement I provided.

I am very curious to find out how logic is only a human construct...

Just putting it out there while you research:

Is there a difference between perceived logic and actual logic?


If you are able to complete this challenge successfully, then I will gladly accept the definition of the term "atheism" as valid.
Original post by Dima-Blackburn
Sure: if p, then q. p, therefore q.

Notice how p and q are not objects in spacetime, but nevertheless there exists a causal relation between the premise and the conclusion. True premises cause true conclusions; if causality (and hence all logic) requires time, then logic is not timeless. But this is absurd. Therefore causality, like logic, is a metaphysical necessity not subject to any contingent laws of nature.

Your turn: explain an example of a brute fact (i.e. it cannot have an explanation) without special pleading.


I don't follow the link between logic and the creation of the universe.

What do you mean by a brute fact?
Original post by saran23
Statement: "Logic works just because it does"

Your comment: Logic is a human construct so one could argue it makes sense because we make it make sense.

Sources have to be reliable and scientifically proven(preferably scientific journals). They must support your comment on the statement I provided.

I am very curious to find out how logic is only a human construct...

Just putting it out there while you research:

Is there a difference between perceived logic and actual logic?


If you are able to complete this challenge successfully, then I will gladly accept the definition of the term "atheism" as valid.


I didn't say "only a human construct". The more advanced forms of logic are exclusive only to humans, but many animals make basic logical conclusions based on what they see around them. Logic is nothing more than the analysing and interpreting of events/causes/consequences/ideas etc, there's no such thing as one thing called "logic" that's floating around in nature.

Besides, what is the relevance of this?
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by Robby2312
Even if there is some force there is no reason to call it God.It makes no sense to worship a force and thats not what the vast majority of people mean when they say God.And im pretty sure its not false
http://www.physicsoftheuniverse.com/topics_blackholes_singularities.html


It seems as though the internet does not know for sure. Both you and me haven't provided reliable sources with references (my mistake as well) so we can't know who is really right :frown: So Black holes can't be used to argue for the violations of the laws of nature in the singularity of the Big Bang. Unless you can produce evidence in your favour.
Original post by Plantagenet Crown
I didn't say "only a human construct". The more advanced forms of logic are exclusive only to humans, but many animals make basic logical conclusions based on what they around them.


Ok, that part of the challenge can be omitted. However I need real scientific evidence for the rest of your claim.
Original post by saran23
Still the theory contradicts with the scientific principles(such as some of Newton's law of thermodynamics). Let me rephrase my previous post with the concept that it "was" the universe.

"The singularity was this universe. So scientific principles does contradict this generally well accepted theory. If you believe the scientific principles is not applicable to the Big Bang, you are indirectly claiming it to be outside a closed system. This means you are implying indirectly that the Big Bang is external to the Universe. Doesn't that contradict your current position?If God/or something else did not do that very task we would not be here. It doesn't matter how complex the task is. We owe it to that divine force. "


I'm struggling to understand what your trying to get at. The creation of the universe itself hardly needs to obey the laws of the universe.
Original post by saran23
Ok, that part of the challenge can be omitted. However I need real scientific evidence for the rest of your claim.


For what claim?! Can you please be clear and outline the relevance concerning the existence of God?
Original post by saran23
I will gladly accept the definition of the term "atheism" as valid.


Here's what the OED, the ultimate source, says:

A person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of God or gods

http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/atheist
Original post by D3LLI5
I don't follow the link between logic and the creation of the universe.

What do you mean by a brute fact?


It essentially boils down to what we mean by causation, explanation, entailment, etc. As I said, there's no real consensus on the issue of causation requiring spatio-temporal conditions. It's a fascinating topic, and a pretty big subject, I'd highly recommend read the SEP article on this.

Brute facts are facts that require no explanation.
Original post by Good bloke
Here's what the OED, the ultimate source, says:

A person who disbelieves or lacks belief in the existence of God or gods

http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/atheist


The canonical version gives this definition.

The vast majority of the dictionaries use the "positive atheism" definition, defended by SEP and IEP. Here are a few examples: Dictionary.com, Merriam-Webster, Cambridge Dictionary, The Free Dictionary, Merriam-Webster Learner's Dictionary, Vocabulary.com, MacMillan Dictionary...
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by Dima-Blackburn
It essentially boils down to what we mean by causation, explanation, entailment, etc. As I said, there's no real consensus on the issue of causation requiring spatio-temporal conditions. It's a fascinating topic, and a pretty big subject, I'd highly recommend read the SEP article on this.

Brute facts are facts that require no explanation.


It's all well and good learning about all this but I fail to see how it's relevant to my original point.

I can't think of an example of a brute fact off the top of my head.
Original post by saran23
It seems as though the internet does not know for sure. Both you and me haven't provided reliable sources with references (my mistake as well) so we can't know who is really right :frown: So Black holes can't be used to argue for the violations of the laws of nature in the singularity of the Big Bang. Unless you can produce evidence in your favour.


A black hole is what happens when a high mass star collapses under gravity.It obeys the laws of physics up to a point.But it then becomes infinitely dense and its within the singularity that physics breaks down.I think thats the accepted theory.
Original post by D3LLI5
It's all well and good learning about all this but I fail to see how it's relevant to my original point.

I can't think of an example of a brute fact off the top of my head.


The point was that you're using a very narrow definition of causality.

Right, so what makes you think the big bang is a brute fact that requires no causal explanation when cosmologists are proposing various models to explain the origin of the universe?
Original post by Dima-Blackburn
The point was that you're using a very narrow definition of causality.

Right, so what makes you think the big bang is a brute fact that requires no causal explanation when cosmologists are proposing various models to explain the origin of the universe?


The point is we literally have no idea about the absolute 'origin' of the universe. You can make various propositions about what could have 'happened' but since the nature of our entire knowledge is based on our existence in this universe under its rules it becomes extremely unsound to start making claims about things that aren't grounded within our universe.

Maybe the universe is a brute fact, the fact that I can't give an example of a brute fact in this universe is irrelevant because we're not talking about within this universe.

Considering we have no knowledge about absolute nothing we can't say anything empirically about it like we can with the absence of matter or energy in the universe.
Original post by inhuman
I personally have an extreme dislike for agnostics. They are lying to themselves. Why should the God delusion be any special? They aren't agnostic about the existence of a tea pot holding up the Earth are they? Or about dragons and fairies existing? So why God?


So, you have a very strong dislike for anyone that believes that there even might be a God. What a lovely, tolerant, accepting person you are :rofl:

Your example is absolutely ridiculous. If there was at least a shred of evidence for dragons, fairies or "a tea pot holding up the Earth" then your analogy might have some base, but there clearly isn't any. Whereas, the existence of a God is backed by just as much evidence as there is for Big Bang. Both have substantial amounts of evidence supporting each side's beliefs, neither are conclusive and each side thinks the other is a moron.

I think it takes a level-headed and open-minded person to recognise the fact that neither view can be completely refuted and picking a side is merely choosing the view that you believe to be true, and instead say "Okay, I've looked at the evidence, both sides make a good point, but until I see concrete proof I can't say either of them is correct. Hence, agnosticism.
Original post by D3LLI5
The point is we literally have no idea about the absolute 'origin' of the universe.


So? Should we abandon cosmology? Should we stop forming hypotheses about the causal mechanism(s) of the Big Bang?

You can make various propositions about what could have 'happened' but since the nature of our entire knowledge is based on our existence in this universe under its rules it becomes extremely unsound to start making claims about things that aren't grounded within our universe.


This is question begging. You made the claim that causality is necessarily a temporal phenomenon, I simply disputed that assertion by pointing out the lack of consensus on the issue within physics and philosophy. No one is saying the laws of physics within our spacetime manifold must apply outside thereof.

Maybe the universe is a brute fact, the fact that I can't give an example of a brute fact in this universe is irrelevant because we're not talking about within this universe.


Of course it's relevant. Why must the need for explanations depend on whether or not they exist in our universe? If causality isn't a metaphysical principle, why do we assume unexplained phenomena must have explanations?

Considering we have no knowledge about absolute nothing we can't say anything empirically about it like we can with the absence of matter or energy in the universe.


We can use the rationalist, a priori approach to discern some things about nothingness. We can say for example that absolute nothing has no potential to do anything.

Note: this need not have anything to do with God. I'm just disputing your broad claims,which not many philosophers and cosmologists would take seriously.
Original post by Dima-Blackburn
So? Should we abandon cosmology? Should we stop forming hypotheses about the causal mechanism(s) of the Big Bang?



This is question begging. You made the claim that causality is necessarily a temporal phenomenon, I simply disputed that assertion by pointing out the lack of consensus on the issue within physics and philosophy. No one is saying the laws of physics within our spacetime manifold must apply outside thereof.



Of course it's relevant. Why must the need for explanations depend on whether or not they exist in our universe? If causality isn't a metaphysical principle, why do we assume unexplained phenomena must have explanations?



We can use the rationalist, a priori approach to discern some things about nothingness. We can say for example that absolute nothing has no potential to do anything.

Note: this need not have anything to do with God. I'm just disputing your broad claims,which not many philosophers and cosmologists would take seriously.


Accepting that we know nothing about the absence of a universe does not mean we should stop studying cosmology, it's merely stating our epistemological position.

Could you give an example of non temporal cause and effect or what that would entail with relation to physics? I fail to see how your previous example of something notional like logic could by itself 'Create' the universe.

I never said the need for explanations *must* depend on whether they exist within the universe. In terms of offering explanations in the absence of a universe though what do you have to use? You can't just assume all the physical laws of this universe apply, you have no time, absolutely nothing so what are you left with to explain anything?

How can you make the claim that absolute nothing has no potential to do anything?
Original post by D3LLI5
Accepting that we know nothing about the absence of a universe does not mean we should stop studying cosmology, it's merely stating our epistemological position.


Not really. You said: "...cause and effect does not apply when the universe does not exist and you cannot use it to make claims about the 'origin' of the universe". If true, this would make cosmology obsolete. But this is absurd. You've erroneously conflated causality with the inductive generalisations known as the laws of physics.

Could you give an example of non temporal cause and effect or what that would entail with relation to physics? I fail to see how your previous example of something notional like logic could by itself 'Create' the universe.


The purpose of the previous example was to show that causality isn't limited to the physical realm or tangible objects. If the "creation" of the universe is a result of a logical entailment of some sort, then that would atemporal causation. I don't have to give an example of atemporal cause/effect within a temporal world, but I'm guessing the main contention you have is the lack of "temporal lag" between a cause and its effect; this can be resolved by looking at simultaneous causation. Again, there are differing thoughts on that too. See the philpapers link for contemporary literature on the subject.

I never said the need for explanations *must* depend on whether they exist within the universe. In terms of offering explanations in the absence of a universe though what do you have to use? You can't just assume all the physical laws of this universe apply, you have no time, absolutely nothing so what are you left with to explain anything?


But no one is assuming that. You're conflating the principle of causality/reason/explanation with the known laws of physics again.

How can you make the claim that absolute nothing has no potential to do anything?


Nothingness by definition cannot be something; it can have no properties, no attributes, no potential, no anything. Disputing this is about as rational as disputing the claim "Oil is oily". When physicists talk about the possibility of universes "coming from nothing", they redefine nothing to mean some sort of a quantum vacuum that has potential - it is very much "something". Even so, not all physicists agree with the central proposal:
https://arxiv.org/abs/1405.6091
(edited 7 years ago)

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