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Maths C3 - Trigonometry... Help??

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Original post by Philip-flop
Thank you. The only problem is I mentioned that I already know how to solve things like ... sin(300) sin(300)...

I want to know how to find the angle xx for example when... tan(x)=1 tan (x) = -1... without using a calculator :frown:


tan(x)=sin(x)cos(x)=1sin(x)=cos(x)\tan(x)=\frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}=-1 \Rightarrow \sin(x)=-\cos(x)

Sketch the two graphs and see where they intersect, look for whichever solution is closest to 0 (the principal solution, in other words)
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by Philip-flop
Thank you. The only problem is I mentioned that I already know how to solve things like ... sin(300) sin(300)...

I want to know how to find the angle xx for example when... tan(x)=1 tan (x) = -1... without using a calculator :frown:

tan 45 = 1.

This is one of the exact values.

So to solve tan x = -1 with CAST, draw in an acute angle of 45 then look for quadrants where tan is negative.
Original post by RDKGames
tan(x)=sin(x)cos(x)=1sin(x)=cos(x)\tan(x)=\frac{\sin(x)}{\cos(x)}=-1 \Rightarrow \sin(x)=-\cos(x)

Sketch the two graphs and see where they intersect, look for whichever solution is closest to 0 (the principal solution, in other words)


Thank you!! That's a pretty cool way of doing it! Just quite time consuming. But I got there in the end!

Would like to know how to use the Trig Ratio triangles for these questions at some point though. Although like notnek said, I'll be allowed a calculator in the exam.

Saying that. Looking at question 1(g) and (h) they look pretty tricky even with a calculator! Not sure how I'm going to rearrange... arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin (sin \frac{\pi}{3}) :frown:

EDIT: Actually it was pretty easy to solve using a calculator. But still :tongue:
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by RDKGames
For arctan(1)=arctan(1)\arctan(-1)= -\arctan(1) you need to know that tan(π4)=1\tan(\frac{\pi}{4})=1. You can easily find this from your ratio triangles by considering the 45 degree one, and you know that tan of an angle is opposite side divided by the adjacent one. Since both sides are equal, you get 1/1 which is just 1, but this is something you just remember. Another way to think about it is that tan is the gradient of the hypotenuse. You can see this clearly from the unit circle and the gradient is 1 at 45 degrees. Sine would be the change in y, and cosine would be the change in x, so one over the other gives the gradient.

g and h are pretty easy. You are taking an angle, applying a trigonometric function to it, then applying the inverse of that same trigonometric function. Inverse is like going back a step. So the trig function and its inverse cancel eachother out. It's like dividing by nn then proceeding to immediately multiply nn on the same thing. Though for g, it is slightly different, try and see why it is so. Hint: remember that sin(x)=sin(πx)\sin(x)=\sin(\pi-x)


Oh right. I'm sort of starting to understand a bit better now. Still a little bit confused as to why things like...
cos(x)=cos(x)cos (-x) = cos(x)... but then... sin(x)=sin(x) sin(-x) = -sin (x)... Is it because of their positioning on the graph?

So for 1(g) I would do this...
arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin (sin\frac{\pi}{3})

Use the trig ratio triangles. The triangle with the angle π3 \frac{\pi}{3} and use trigonometry's SOH to give me...
=arcsin(32) =arcsin (\frac{\sqrt 3}{2})

arcsin can then be re-written as...
Unparseable latex formula:

=sin^-^1 (\frac{\sqrt 3}{2})



But then what from here? :frown:
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by Philip-flop
Thank you!! That's a pretty cool way of doing it! Just quite time consuming. But I got there in the end!

Would like to know how to use the Trig Ratio triangles for these questions at some point though. Although like notnek said, I'll be allowed a calculator in the exam.

Saying that. Looking at question 1(g) and (h) they look pretty tricky even with a calculator! Not sure how I'm going to rearrange... arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin (sin \frac{\pi}{3}) :frown:


For arctan(1)=arctan(1)\arctan(-1)= -\arctan(1) you need to know that tan(π4)=1\tan(\frac{\pi}{4})=1. You can easily find this from your ratio triangles by considering the 45 degree one, and you know that tan of an angle is opposite side divided by the adjacent one. Since both sides are equal, you get 1/1 which is just 1, but this is something you just remember. Another way to think about it is that tan is the gradient of the hypotenuse. You can see this clearly from the unit circle and the gradient is 1 at 45 degrees. Sine would be the change in y, and cosine would be the change in x, so one over the other gives the gradient.

g and h are pretty easy. You are taking an angle, applying a trigonometric function to it, then applying the inverse of that same trigonometric function. Inverse is like going back a step. So the trig function and its inverse cancel eachother out. It's like dividing by nn then proceeding to immediately multiply nn on the same thing.

Though for h, it is slightly different. To understand what is going on, you need to think back to when you did inverse graphs. You know that a function can ONLY have an inverse if it is one-to-one. The sine function is NOT one-to-one therefore we must restrict the domain to sin(x),π2xπ2\sin(x), -\frac{\pi}{2}\leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2} and only then we have our inverse. The problem with 2π3\frac{2\pi}{3} is that it lies outside our restricted domain. However, thanks to the symmetry of the function, we know that sin(x)=sin(πx)\sin(x)=\sin(\pi-x) and we can use this to get an angle which is inside our domain while keeping the overall value the same.

Here is a diagram to illustrate this. The black line is x=2π3x=\frac{2\pi}{3} and you need to figure out what the purple line is in order to get the correct answer, because the purple one has the same value due to symmetry and how the green dotted line shows it. The orange line represents arcsin(x)\arcsin(x), the blue dotted line represents sin(x)\sin(x) while the red line is the blue line with a restricted domain applied to it.

SINE.PNG
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by Philip-flop
Oh right. I'm sort of starting to understand a bit better now. Still a little bit confused as to why things like...
cos(x)=cos(x)cos (-x) = cos(x)... but then... sin(x)=sin(x) sin(-x) = -sin (x)... Is it because of their positioning on the graph?

So for 1(g) I would do this...
arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin (sin\frac{\pi}{3})

Use the trig ratio triangles. The triangle with the angle π3 \frac{\pi}{3} and use trigonometry's SOH to give me...
=arcsin(32) =arcsin (\frac{\sqrt 3}{2})

arcsin can then be re-written as...
Unparseable latex formula:

=sin^-^1 (\frac{\sqrt 3}{2})



But then what from here? :frown:


My post above expands on my previous comment.

As far your question is concerned, it goes back to π3\frac{\pi}{3}. You can even see it from your ratio triangle with the angle of π3\frac{\pi}{3}
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by RDKGames
My post above expands on my previous comment.

As far your question is concerned, it goes back to π3\frac{\pi}{3}. You can even see it from your ratio triangle with the angle of π3\frac{\pi}{3}


Oh right yeah. I'm reading it now :tongue:
Original post by RDKGames


SINE.PNG


Just realised we're talking about Q1(h). Ok. I understand that for sin to be a function it must be one-to-one, therefore a restricted domain is put in place. And I can see how the symmetry is used between the black and purple line because 2π3 \frac{2 \pi}{3} doesn't fall within the restricted domain of π2xπ2\frac{\pi}{2}\leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}.

I'm kinda confused with how sinx=sin(πx)sin x = sin (\pi - x) because of the symmetry :frown:

Very good graph btw!! It's helping me visualise the problem so much easier!! :smile: :smile: :smile:
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by Philip-flop
Just realised we're talking about Q1(h).

This is about 1g now, you've done h.
Ok. I understand that for sin to be a function it must be one-to-one, therefore a restricted domain is put in place. And I can see how the symmetry is used between the black and purple line because 2π3 \frac{2 \pi}{3} doesn't fall within the restricted domain of π2xπ2\frac{\pi}{2}\leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}.

I'm kinda confused with how sinx=sin(πx)sin x = sin (\pi - x) because of the symmetry :frown:

Very good graph btw!! It's helping me visualise the problem so much easier!! :smile: :smile: :smile:


One way to explain why sin(x)=sin(πx)\sin(x)=\sin(\pi-x) is to use the graph above. With sin(x)\sin(x) you are going along the x-axis to your chosen xx value and then hitting the curve to see what y-value you get. With sin(πx)\sin(\pi-x) you are doing the similar thing, except you are first going forward by π\pi radians, and then going BACK by the amount you need. Look on the diagram, you can see that the distance between x=0x=0 and the purple line is the SAME as the distance between x=πx=\pi and the black line as two parts of the curve are symmetrical ABOUT x=π2x=\frac{\pi}{2}

Another way to show it is to use graph transformations:

1. Start with sin(x)\sin(x)



2. Translate by vector [π,0][-\pi,0] which means sin(x)sin(x+π)\sin(x) \Rightarrow \sin(x+\pi)



3. Reflect in the y-axis (x=0): sin(x+π)sin(x+π)\sin(x+\pi) \Rightarrow \sin(-x+\pi)




And as you can see, the green graphs is exactly the same as the red one, therefore sin(x)=sin(πx)\sin(x)=\sin(\pi-x)

Also note, you can use this same transformation technique (with graphs sketches if you wish) to show that cos(x)=cos(x)\cos(-x)=\cos(x) and sin(x)=sin(x)\sin(-x)=-\sin(x)
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by Philip-flop
Just realised we're talking about Q1(h). Ok. I understand that for sin to be a function it must be one-to-one, therefore a restricted domain is put in place. And I can see how the symmetry is used between the black and purple line because 2π3 \frac{2 \pi}{3} doesn't fall within the restricted domain of π2xπ2\frac{\pi}{2}\leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}.

I'm kinda confused with how sinx=sin(πx)sin x = sin (\pi - x) because of the symmetry :frown:

Very good graph btw!! It's helping me visualise the problem so much easier!! :smile: :smile: :smile:


sinx \sin x is a function, we restrict the domain so that it has an inverse.
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by RDKGames
This is about 1g now, you've done h.

So we're working through Q1(g)...
arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin(sin \frac{\pi}{3})

Oh dear. Now I'm confused as to where the 2π3\frac{2 \pi}{3} has come from :frown: Likewise, I understand the process of your transformations from the diagrams you showed me, but I'm not sure why it has been transformed in that way? (sorry if that doesn't make sense).

But overall I think I'm beginning to get a grasp on this question. It's almost like sin is cancelled out by the inverse of sin (arcsin). So that...

arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin(sin \frac{\pi}{3})...the angle from sin π3\frac{\pi}{3} can be used to give a ratio using the trig ratio triangle. This gives...

arcsin(32) arcsin (\frac {\sqrt 3}{2})

Which is the same as, and can be re-written...
Unparseable latex formula:

sin^-^1 (\frac {\sqrt 3}{2})



to which can sort of be written as...
sinθ=32 sin \theta = \frac {\sqrt 3}{2} ... Where θ\theta is the angle we are looking for which can be found using the trig ratio triangles.

so...
θ=π3 \theta = \frac{\pi}{3}
Original post by Philip-flop
So we're working through Q1(g)...
arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin(sin \frac{\pi}{3})

Oh dear. Now I'm confused as to where the 2π3\frac{2 \pi}{3} has come from :frown: Likewise, I understand the process of your transformations from the diagrams you showed me, but I'm not sure why it has been transformed in that way? (sorry if that doesn't make sense).

But overall I think I'm beginning to get a grasp on this question. It's almost like sin is cancelled out by the inverse of sin (arcsin). So that...

arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin(sin \frac{\pi}{3})...the angle from sin π3\frac{\pi}{3} can be used to give a ratio using the trig ratio triangle. This gives...

arcsin(32) arcsin (\frac {\sqrt 3}{2})

Which is the same as, and can be re-written...
Unparseable latex formula:

sin^-^1 (\frac {\sqrt 3}{2})



to which can sort of be written as...
sinθ=32 sin \theta = \frac {\sqrt 3}{2} ... Where θ\theta is the angle we are looking for which can be found using the trig ratio triangles.

so...
θ=π3 \theta = \frac{\pi}{3}


Oh sorry, having looked back at the questions, the the 2π3\frac{2\pi}{3} one is indeed 1h. Not sure what I was thinking saying that at 3am, aha, ignore that part.

You got 1g correct with a solid method. Hopefully 1h now makes sense as well after the explanations.

The graph has been transformed that way because it has loads of symmetry, so you can do it differently if you wish, but you'd end up with a slightly different form which still gives the right answer.
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by RDKGames
Oh sorry, having looked back at the questions, the the 2π3\frac{2\pi}{3} is indeed 1h. Not sure what I was thinking saying that at 3am, aha, ignore that part.

You got 1g correct. Hopefully 1h now makes sense as well.

No worries. I will be moving onto question 1(h) now so part of it already makes sense to me with the help of your graphs :smile: :smile:
I seriously owe you one!!!
Original post by Philip-flop
So we're working through Q1(g)...
arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin(sin \frac{\pi}{3})

Oh dear. Now I'm confused as to where the 2π3\frac{2 \pi}{3} has come from :frown: Likewise, I understand the process of your transformations from the diagrams you showed me, but I'm not sure why it has been transformed in that way? (sorry if that doesn't make sense).

But overall I think I'm beginning to get a grasp on this question. It's almost like sin is cancelled out by the inverse of sin (arcsin). So that...

arcsin(sinπ3) arcsin(sin \frac{\pi}{3})...the angle from sin π3\frac{\pi}{3} can be used to give a ratio using the trig ratio triangle. This gives...

arcsin(32) arcsin (\frac {\sqrt 3}{2})

Which is the same as, and can be re-written...
Unparseable latex formula:

sin^-^1 (\frac {\sqrt 3}{2})



to which can sort of be written as...
sinθ=32 sin \theta = \frac {\sqrt 3}{2} ... Where θ\theta is the angle we are looking for which can be found using the trig ratio triangles.

so...
θ=π3 \theta = \frac{\pi}{3}


These are standard trig angles. But arcsin(sinx)sin(arcsinx)x \arcsin (\sin x )\equiv \sin (\arcsin x)\equiv x .
This just comes from the fact that when you compose a function with its inverse ff1(x)f1f(x)x f \circ f^{-1}(x)\equiv f^{-1} \circ f(x)\equiv x .
Original post by B_9710
These are standard trig angles. But arcsin(sinx)sin(arcsinx)x \arcsin (\sin x )\equiv \sin (\arcsin x)\equiv x .
This just comes from the fact that when you compose a function with its inverse ff1(x)f1f(x)x f \circ f^{-1}(x)\equiv f^{-1} \circ f(x)\equiv x .


Of course things get a bit tricky with trig functions, since for example arcsinsinx\arcsin \sin x is defined over R\mathbb{R} whilst sinarcsinx\sin \arcsin x is defined over [1,1][-1,1].
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by B_9710
These are standard trig angles. But arcsin(sinx)sin(arcsinx)x \arcsin (\sin x )\equiv \sin (\arcsin x)\equiv x .
This just comes from the fact that when you compose a function with its inverse ff1(x)f1f(x)x f \circ f^{-1}(x)\equiv f^{-1} \circ f(x)\equiv x .


arcsin(sinx)sin(arcsinx)x \arcsin (\sin x )\equiv \sin (\arcsin x)\equiv x is not correct. The latter identity is, but the former is not true and is the probably the most misunderstood concept by students when learning trig. arcsin\arcsin is not strictly the inverse of sin\sin.
Original post by IrrationalRoot
arcsin(sinx)sin(arcsinx)x \arcsin (\sin x )\equiv \sin (\arcsin x)\equiv x is not correct. The latter identity is, but the former is not true and is the probably the most misunderstood concept by students when learning trig. arcsin\arcsin is not strictly the inverse of sin\sin.


^ My head hurts :frown:
Original post by Philip-flop
^ My head hurts :frown:


I'm assuming your 'head hurts' (lol) because you always thought sin\sin had an inverse. If so, answer me this question: if sinx=0\sin x=0, what is xx? Is your answer x=0x=0? Wrong, x=2πx=2\pi. In fact xx could be any even multiple of π\pi.

Hopefully you now see why sin\sin does not have an inverse. If you're given the value of sinx\sin x, you cannot determine xx. sin\sin is not one-to-one.

Now that begs the question, what is arcsinx\arcsin x? I would explain it but it can be quite hard to understand (and will make this post even harder to digest), so it's best to look it up and if you have any questions ask here :smile:. The basic idea though is that arcsin\arcsin is the inverse of sin\sin for a certain portion of the domain of sin\sin. This portion is chosen so that sin\sin is one-to-one in this portion.

Anyway, it might make you feel better if I told you that none of my teachers understood that sin\sin does not actually have an inverse lol. They all assumed that arcsin(sinx)x\arcsin(\sin x) \equiv x, which as I've explained isn't true.
Original post by IrrationalRoot
...If so, answer me this question: if sinx=0\sin x=0, what is xx? Is your answer x=0x=0? Wrong, x=2πx=2\pi. In fact xx could be any even multiple of π\pi.


But 0 is a multiply of π\pi so it's not wrong, it's just a principal solution, and it doesn't have to be an even multiple. It would be a mess to lead OP to general solutions of sine at this point.
(edited 7 years ago)
Original post by IrrationalRoot
I'm assuming your 'head hurts' (lol) because you always thought sin\sin had an inverse. If so, answer me this question: if sinx=0\sin x=0, what is xx? Is your answer x=0x=0? Wrong, x=2πx=2\pi. In fact xx could be any even multiple of π\pi.


I thought that if sinx=0\sin x=0 then xx can equal either 2π,π,0,π,2π -2\pi , -\pi, 0, \pi, 2\pi and so on. as the graph crosses the x-axis at these points when y=0

Original post by IrrationalRoot
Hopefully you now see why sin\sin does not have an inverse. If you're given the value of sinx\sin x, you cannot determine xx. sin\sin is not one-to-one.


No, I know that sinsin doesn't have an exact inverse as for it to be a function it must be a one-to-one. Hence why only the domain π2xπ2 -\frac{\pi}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{ \pi}{2} of sin(x)sin(x) gets "inverted" to create the function arcsinarcsin

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