Reproductive anatomy and basic science questions

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Reply 20

Farmacee

Original post by Anonymous

On my lecturer's slide..

It's wrong lol.

Reply 21

thegodofgod

PGF_2a causes vasoconstriction of the spiral arteries causing hypoxia and uterine smooth muscle contraction, leading to menstrual shredding. PGE_2a then causes vasodilation, which increases blood flow which washes the uterine cellular debris.

So different prostaglandins do have different roles.

Reply 22

AqsaMx

Fully struggling to understand the pelvic muscle attachments
Like i know that the coccygeus, levator and and the fascia are the muscles but I'm struggling to remember where they're joined.
Does anyone have a link or is able to explain anything? Can't seem to find a decent link at all.

Reply 23

usycool1

Original post by AqsaMx

Have a look at AnatomyZone on YouTube. I find that it helps me to visualise things. Sadly, there's no quick way to remembering it - it's just a case of sitting down and learning, really.

Reply 24

AqsaMx

I'm confused why its FSH and not GnRH as GnRH stimulates the release of FSH so shouldn't it be checked whether GnRH is being produced in sufficient quantities to actually initiate the release of FSH?

Anyone?

Struggling with embryology, I realise that the mesoderm is made up of 3 layers; paraxial mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm, lateral plate mesoderm.
On a lecturers slide it says the Paraxial mesoderm 'forms segmental blocks called semitomeres which in the head region is called neuromeres in association with the neural plates'
Can anyone explain this?

Reply 27

Beska

"Misses her period" is a very imprecise term. In common lingo "missing a period" suggests secondary amenorrhea and the first line is most likely a bHCG to check if they're pregnant. If you're investigating a proper secondary amenorrhea (i.e. no periods anymore at all, not just a single missed period) you'd do FSH because it will help you narrow down the diagnosis - if it's low it suggests hypothalmic hypogonadism (the most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea - usually due to stress, diet, exercise, etc.) whilst if it's high it suggests the cause may be primary ovarian failure (rare). GnRH testing is more complex because it's pulsatile. The best first line test is FSH.

Reply 28

nexttime

The pulsation of release makes GnRH hard to interpret.

And yeah HCG is the better choice!

Reply 29

AqsaMx

Could someone explain how one week of embryonic development equates to three weeks in gestation?

Reply 30

ForestCat

Original post by AqsaMx

Could someone explain how one week of embryonic development equates to three weeks in gestation?

Do you mean in the way that gestational age is measure from date of LMP rather than from date of conception. So is considered roughly two weeks ahead of embryonic age (given that we're assuming conception occurred during ovulation).

Reply 31

AqsaMx

In a lecture slide it says - 'Bases stack in the centre of the helix, forming an uncharged core with hydrogen donors and acceptors, which can be recognised by proteins or drugs, in a sequence specific manner'

Can someone explain what this actually means? Especially the hydrogen donors and acceptors part?

Reply 32

ForestCat

Original post by AqsaMx

You seem to be asking a lot of questions. Are there not people on your course that you can discuss this with?

And hydrogen donors and acceptors I think are talking in terms of electrons. Hydrogen can donate or gain an electron and be stable. Did you do a-level chemistry? Your notes might help with this.