The Student Room Group
For those who are itnerested,

Kn=n!k=0n(1)nn! \displaystyle K_n = n! \sum_{k=0}^{n} \frac{(-1)^n}{n!}
Reply 2
K0 = 0?
oops

K0 = 1 cheers for the shout.
Reply 4
were u asked this somewhere
Reply 5
K1 = 0, right?
Sorry again;

K1 = 0 and K0 = 1

Yes Ghosh, that should be a k!, not an n!
Reply 7
You're not going mad.
And that n should be a k. Infact, here it is;

Kn=(n1)(Kn1+Kn2)  and  K1=0  and  K0=1 \displaystyle K_n = (n-1)(K_{n-1} + K_{n-2}) \; and \; K_1 = 0 \; and \; K_0 = 1

The closed form for the above recurrence is;

Kn=n!(p=0n(1)pp!) \displaystyle K_n = n! \left( \sum_{p=0}^{n} \frac{(-1)^p}{p!} \right)
Reply 9
How did you find the closed form?
jj193
How did you find the closed form?


Spent about one hour trying different things (like comparing K(n) to n^n, 2^n, n!, blah, looking for a general pattern) and then proceeded to divide K(n) by them and K(n)/n! ~ 1/e.

We then note K(n) is always an integer so we consider the "best" approxiamtion to 1/e that when multiplied by n! gives us an integer - so clearly starting off with 1/e ~ sum[(-1)^k/k!] and proceeding from there would be a good idea. Then a rather straigtforward but book-keeping induction.
Reply 11
Just managed the induction :smile: thanks

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