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Old 27-06-2005: 27th June 2005 14:23 #1 
Savioahang Savioahang is offline
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Default Heinemann P6 Review Exercise Q111
 
Could anyone explain part (b) for me?

i don't understand any question about transformation and mapping...... :o

anyone has any idea ?
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Old 27-06-2005: 27th June 2005 14:32 #2 
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Originally Posted by Savioahang
Could anyone explain part (b) for me?

i don't understand any question about transformation and mapping...... :o

anyone has any idea ?

It's just:
MQ=P
Q=[M^-1]P
Apply the result from part (a) but with a=2.
 
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