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Original post by paniking_and_not_revising
Sure but concerning the human rights aspect, I'd link the provisions of PACE with provisions from HRA.

I used Sanders and Young's Criminal Justice, Robert Reiner's Politics of the Police and the Oxford Handbook of Criminology during my course.

Concerning articles, I used to just ask my tutor for anything interesting he'd come across recently.

You could also mention any ways PACE may inhibit the police from interrogating and gathering evidence, how this would affect the police's attempts to ascertain Mens Rea.


Thank you so much! Kind of have a direction of where to start now lol. So, basically link between PACE 1984 and HRA 1998 and how it led to the protection of suspect's human rights?

So in that aspect, right to legal advice, right to silence etc may effect police's research on gathering evidence for suspect's mens rea.
Original post by Graceful_Lawyer
Thank you so much! Kind of have a direction of where to start now lol. So, basically link between PACE 1984 and HRA 1998 and how it led to the protection of suspect's human rights?

So in that aspect, right to legal advice, right to silence etc may effect police's research on gathering evidence for suspect's mens rea.


Perhaps also consider the limits on custody and the adverse inferences PACE allows to be drawn from silence.
Original post by Ethereal
Perhaps also consider the limits on custody and the adverse inferences PACE allows to be drawn from silence.


Oh okay. Thank you so much! The question pretty much is based on PACE and its effects. :smile:
Original post by Graceful_Lawyer
Thank you so much! Kind of have a direction of where to start now lol. So, basically link between PACE 1984 and HRA 1998 and how it led to the protection of suspect's human rights?

So in that aspect, right to legal advice, right to silence etc may effect police's research on gathering evidence for suspect's mens rea.


Glad to be of help although I do wish I remembered enough to give better advice.

Yes it may affect the duties of the police although a refusal to answer a question could infer guilt in court if the suspect later goes on to answer. They could be asked why they refused to answer a question if they choose to be cross examined in court. From what I'm aware of, they don't have to give a direct statement in court unless the defence chooses to. The prosecution can't force them to give a statement. If the suspect chooses to stand up and talk, they'll be examined by the defence first, then the prosecution if they wish and then the defence could also opt to examine the suspect again or something.

Also, where the police don't follow PACE or some of the provisions, any evidence they gain as a result of that would be striked out in court due to the prejudicial effect on the defendant. That also protects the suspect's right to a fair trial.
Original post by paniking_and_not_revising


Also, where the police don't follow PACE or some of the provisions, any evidence they gain as a result of that would be striked out in court due to the prejudicial effect on the defendant. That also protects the suspect's right to a fair trial.


In practice this very rarely happens. We don't have fruit of the poison tree in English law. There are a lot of search warrants that end up being quashed yet the evidence gained under them is kept and relied on in court.
Original post by paniking_and_not_revising
Glad to be of help although I do wish I remembered enough to give better advice.

Yes it may affect the duties of the police although a refusal to answer a question could infer guilt in court if the suspect later goes on to answer. They could be asked why they refused to answer a question if they choose to be cross examined in court. From what I'm aware of, they don't have to give a direct statement in court unless the defence chooses to. The prosecution can't force them to give a statement. If the suspect chooses to stand up and talk, they'll be examined by the defence first, then the prosecution if they wish and then the defence could also opt to examine the suspect again or something.

Also, where the police don't follow PACE or some of the provisions, any evidence they gain as a result of that would be striked out in court due to the prejudicial effect on the defendant. That also protects the suspect's right to a fair trial.


Thank you! :smile: I understand it much better now.

In terms of challenges faced by police interrogators when obtaining evidence for mens rea of the suspect, wouldn't it include PACE and how it protects human rights of the suspects. Thus, making it harder for the police to figure out the evidence for the mens rea of the suspect, e.g. due to right to silence.
Original post by Ethereal
In practice this very rarely happens. We don't have fruit of the poison tree in English law. There are a lot of search warrants that end up being quashed yet the evidence gained under them is kept and relied on in court.


Ah ok. But this is essentially what my lecturer told me: if the prejudicial effect is too great then the evidence would not be kept. But we've not gone into this too much yet.

I wish my evidence module was clearer tbh. Sometimes I have no clue what I'm meant to be learning.
Original post by paniking_and_not_revising
Ah ok. But this is essentially what my lecturer told me: if the prejudicial effect is too great then the evidence would not be kept. But we've not gone into this too much yet.

I wish my evidence module was clearer tbh. Sometimes I have no clue what I'm meant to be learning.


In theory yes - but the prejudice would have to be huge. I've seen a number of warrants go bad and the evidence be kept using another act.
Original post by Ethereal
In theory yes - but the prejudice would have to be huge. I've seen a number of warrants go bad and the evidence be kept using another act.


If you don't mind me asking, what's the statute or case governing this? I can't find anything in my lecture notes
Original post by paniking_and_not_revising
If you don't mind me asking, what's the statute or case governing this? I can't find anything in my lecture notes


s 59 CJPA 2001

http://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/2001/16/section/59
Original post by paniking_and_not_revising
Thank you!


yw. if you look for cases on that section you will find a fair number (and judicial confirmation that it can be done) of LE bodies applying to keep evidence obtained under a search warrant that was quashed.
Durham, KCL, UCL and Nottingham students...

When did you get your offer? Getting slightly impatient for a response over here
Original post by robhughes
Durham, KCL, UCL and Nottingham students...

When did you get your offer? Getting slightly impatient for a response over here


http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/connect
Original post by Ethereal
yw. if you look for cases on that section you will find a fair number (and judicial confirmation that it can be done) of LE bodies applying to keep evidence obtained under a search warrant that was quashed.


Thanks I'll take a look on WestLaw.


Can you please explain how this answers my question (what specific month did current students of the listed universities receive their offer)?
Original post by robhughes
Can you please explain how this answers my question (what specific month did current students of the listed universities receive their offer)?


That will give you an idea of timeframes this year. What has happened before is largely irrelevant because the number and quality of applicants fluctuates year to year as does the admissions staff dealing with the applications. You are far better informed as to whether or not your impatience is valid by reference to your peers than those who have gone before.
Original post by Ethereal
That will give you an idea of timeframes this year. What has happened before is largely irrelevant because the number and quality of applicants fluctuates year to year as does the admissions staff dealing with the applications. You are far better informed as to whether or not your impatience is valid by reference to your peers than those who have gone before.


Fair enough, thanks
Hoping somebody could clarify this question on duress to goods in contract law.

Is it correct to say that duress to goods can make a contract voidable?

Skeate v Beale held that it would not but this is no longer regarded as good law. The only other leading authority that seems to be mentioned is Astley v Reynolds but that concerned payment under compulsion, not strictly 'goods' like chattel.

I'm sure the lecturer said that Astley v Reynolds meant that, generally, duress to goods can make a contract voidable but the textbook doesn't explicitly say this, so just wanted to clarify in the broad sense of 'goods'.
Original post by Endless Blue
Hoping somebody could clarify this question on duress to goods in contract law.

Is it correct to say that duress to goods can make a contract voidable?

Skeate v Beale held that it would not but this is no longer regarded as good law. The only other leading authority that seems to be mentioned is Astley v Reynolds but that concerned payment under compulsion, not strictly 'goods' like chattel.

I'm sure the lecturer said that Astley v Reynolds meant that, generally, duress to goods can make a contract voidable but the textbook doesn't explicitly say this, so just wanted to clarify in the broad sense of 'goods'.


Yes, duress of goods can make a contract voidable. I wouldn't rely on Astley v Reynolds for that proposition since there are several better, more recent cases.

If you look at many of the cases on economic duress, they involve one party refusing to deliver the others goods. For example, The Alev - one party refused to deliver the others cargo unless its demands were met; The Olib where there was a threat to sell the defendant's goods, etc. Remember that the 'duress to goods' cases pre-dated a more general doctrine of economic duress. Now those cases are encompassed by the more general doctrine, there is no particular reason to treat them separately. In a couple of the earlier economic duress cases, The Siboen and the Sibotra, and The Atlantic Baron, it was stated that duress of goods should not be treated 'separately'. It seems clear to me that even if those two cases could not overrule Skeate v Beale, it was overruled by the House of Lords in The Evia Luck. At para 165 Lord Goff stated:


We are here concerned with a case of economic duress. It was at one time thought that, at common law, the only form of duress which would entitle a party to avoid a contract on that ground was duress of the person. The origin for this view lay in the decision of the Court of Exchequer in Skeate v. Beale (1841) 11 Ad. & El. 983. However, since the decisions of Kerr J. in Occidental Worldwide Investment Corporation v. Skibs A/S Avanti (The Siboen and The Sibotre) [1976] 1 Lloyd's Rep. 293, of Mocatta J. in North Ocean Shipping Co. Ltd. v. Hyundai Construction Co. Ltd. [1979] Q.B. 705, and of the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council in Pao On v. Lau Yiu Long [1980] A.C. 614, that limitation has been discarded; and it is now accepted that economic pressure may be sufficient to amount to duress for this purpose, provided at least that the economic pressure may be characterised as illegitimate and has constituted a significant cause inducing the plaintiff to enter into the relevant contract


I doubt anyone nowadays even bothers to plead 'duress of goods' as opposed to simply 'economic duress', the latest case I could find where someone did was Alf Vaughan v Royscot Trust. That said, duress of goods cases ought usually to be fairly strong cases of economic duress. That is because in economic duress, there needs to be an illegitimate threat and although not all breaches of contract are illegitimate if you look at the case law, some (but not all) cases on duress of goods involve the tort of conversion, and committing a tort seems to be always illegitimate.
(edited 9 years ago)

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