Hoping somebody could clarify this question on duress to goods in contract law.
Is it correct to say that duress to goods can make a contract voidable?
Skeate v Beale held that it would not but this is no longer regarded as good law. The only other leading authority that seems to be mentioned is Astley v Reynolds but that concerned payment under compulsion, not strictly 'goods' like chattel.
I'm sure the lecturer said that Astley v Reynolds meant that, generally, duress to goods can make a contract voidable but the textbook doesn't explicitly say this, so just wanted to clarify in the broad sense of 'goods'.