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Original post by Unknown?
Simply because I think it is wrong for it to be considered a crime. In the same way I support homosexual's rights because I believe it is the right thing to do but it does not mean I am a homosexual.


Dude. O. M. G.

Are you advocating the same for paedophilia too then?

You crazy man!

The obvious answer which comes to mind, at least for me, is:

Necrophilia is illegal because there is no consent involved, presumed or otherwise, so therefore it just classes as another form of rape in the eyes of the law...a very sick, deranged form of rape.

A secondary factor is the distress it can cause loved ones when they find out that someone has just dug up Great Granny Agnes to lube her up and 'have at her', or taken a ride on Uncle Henry's marvellous rigor mortis...

It's the same reason bestiality is illegal. Not because of the 'distress' it causes the animal, because then everything would have become illegal a long time ago, but because there is no consent involved, presumed or otherwise. If you look at it like that, then generally any sexual taboo becomes a lot more obvious and pronounced -- necro, bestiality, sex with minors, rape, sex while your partner is asleep... All to do with the lack of (presumed) consent.
Reply 22
As much as I do not advocate necrophilia, I agree with your logic.
Also, many years ago society perceived homosexuality as gruesome and disgusting, and now it is perfectly acceptable. At the end of the day, the two are sexual preferences, so who can say one is right and one is wrong?
Reply 23
As much as I do not advocate necrophilia, I agree with your logic.
Also, many years ago society perceived homosexuality as gruesome and disgusting, and now it is perfectly acceptable. At the end of the day, the two are sexual preferences, so who can say one is right and one is wrong?
Reply 24
Original post by CatatonicStupor

Necrophilia is illegal because there is no consent involved, presumed or otherwise, so therefore it just classes as another form of rape in the eyes of the law...a very sick, deranged form of rape.

Why should you need consent from something that is not alive? A dildo can't consent either. Necrophilia is probably the most disgusting thing I can think of, but it's clearly not a form of rape.
Reply 25
Original post by /dev/null
Dude. O. M. G.

Are you advocating the same for paedophilia too then?

You crazy man!



Of course not. Paedophilia abuses children and leaves them emotionally damaged. This is very different.
Reply 26
Original post by CatatonicStupor
The obvious answer which comes to mind, at least for me, is:

Necrophilia is illegal because there is no consent involved, presumed or otherwise, so therefore it just classes as another form of rape in the eyes of the law...a very sick, deranged form of rape.

A secondary factor is the distress it can cause loved ones when they find out that someone has just dug up Great Granny Agnes to lube her up and 'have at her', or taken a ride on Uncle Henry's marvellous rigor mortis...

It's the same reason bestiality is illegal. Not because of the 'distress' it causes the animal, because then everything would have become illegal a long time ago, but because there is no consent involved, presumed or otherwise. If you look at it like that, then generally any sexual taboo becomes a lot more obvious and pronounced -- necro, bestiality, sex with minors, rape, sex while your partner is asleep... All to do with the lack of (presumed) consent.


I have already said that consent was given between the partner and the dying partner before death. If this takes place in a hospital for example there would be other people around to acknowledge this, maybe some authorization forms would need to be signed for example.
Original post by Unknown?
I have already said that consent was given between the partner and the dying partner before death. If this takes place in a hospital for example there would be other people around to acknowledge this, maybe some authorization forms would need to be signed for example.


Consent is not a permanent thing. A person could consent to having sex with you right now, and then as soon as you're about to do it, they could say no and revoke all your rights -- should you continue, it then becomes rape, regardless of signed forms or not. With the person dead, they have no way to say 'no', and so you are effectively denying them their right to change their mind (their 'free will', if you will), and are therefore on the border of 'rape' (were they alive, and gagged, for example...)

Original post by Psyk
Why should you need consent from something that is not alive? A dildo can't consent either. Necrophilia is probably the most disgusting thing I can think of, but it's clearly not a form of rape.


Has a dildo ever been alive? No. The point with consent is that it applies to living things, or things that have been alive. You can presume the consent of the deceased, and argue it all you like, but as the deceased is dead at the time of the act, and might have changed their mind at the last second and never told you, then you can't accurately say that consent is there.

I could say right now that I consent to the OP having at me with a strap-on, but when it comes to the act, I could just as easily say no. That's the idea of consenting, you can change your mind. Since, the deceased can't say 'no', you have to presume rape. It's not like this is written in stone somewhere that "Necro = Rape" ... it's just the easiest way to think of it, because we all know (or should all know) that rape = wrong, ergo necro = wrong. There should be no questions, then, about 'doing the dirty' with your best friend's grandma's corpse...
Reply 28
Original post by CatatonicStupor
Consent is not a permanent thing. A person could consent to having sex with you right now, and then as soon as you're about to do it, they could say no and revoke all your rights -- should you continue, it then becomes rape, regardless of signed forms or not. With the person dead, they have no way to say 'no', and so you are effectively denying them their right to change their mind (their 'free will', if you will), and are therefore on the border of 'rape' (were they alive, and gagged, for example...)


Once they are dead their free will is gone. They are dead. As long as they gave consent right up till before death then I don't see anything wrong with it. It's like choosing who to leave your house to after you die when you sign a will. You can't then argue that the person who is being left the house cannot have because they may have changed their mind the second before death.
Reply 29
Original post by CatatonicStupor

Has a dildo ever been alive? No. The point with consent is that it applies to living things, or things that have been alive. You can presume the consent of the deceased, and argue it all you like, but as the deceased is dead at the time of the act, and might have changed their mind at the last second and never told you, then you can't accurately say that consent is there.

I'm not saying anything about presuming consent. I'm saying the concept of consent simply does not apply to inanimate objects.

At what point does a corpse go from being a "person" to being just an object? So having sex with a corpse is rape, so what if you made a sex toy out of bone? Depending on the material it's made of, a dildo is essentially the same thing. Almost everything is made from material that used to be part of a living thing. Plastic is made from oil, oil forms from dead animals and plants. Where do you draw the line between it being "rape" and simply masturbation with a sex toy?
Original post by Unknown?
Once they are dead their free will is gone. They are dead. As long as they gave consent right up till before death then I don't see anything wrong with it. It's like choosing who to leave your house to after you die when you sign a will. You can't then argue that the person who is being left the house cannot have because they may have changed their mind the second before death.


But, transferring ownership of a property from one person to another is a simple thing, when it comes to dead people. Sticking your cock in one, however, isn't exactly looked upon lightly. Maybe saying the thing about changing their mind was silly, how about we try:

THE PERSON IS DEAD. WHAT THE **** IS WRONG WITH YOU!?

Sorry. What I meant to say is: a will can be considered null & void if the person isn't considered sound of mind. Essentially, the law could look upon it, regardless of witnesses or otherwise, that the 'sexee' isn't of sound mind, or, as in the case of a will, they don't understand the moral implications that necrophilia holds, and therefore the document you hope for would be 'null & void' and the act would be totally illegal again.

However, something that may interest you: go and read Violets are Blue, by James Patterson. There's an entire scene describing covert necrophilia in that. In short: Get a job as a mortician, nobody will know :rolleyes:
Reply 31
Original post by CatatonicStupor
But, transferring ownership of a property from one person to another is a simple thing, when it comes to dead people. Sticking your cock in one, however, isn't exactly looked upon lightly. Maybe saying the thing about changing their mind was silly, how about we try:

THE PERSON IS DEAD. WHAT THE **** IS WRONG WITH YOU!?

Sorry. What I meant to say is: a will can be considered null & void if the person isn't considered sound of mind. Essentially, the law could look upon it, regardless of witnesses or otherwise, that the 'sexee' isn't of sound mind, or, as in the case of a will, they don't understand the moral implications that necrophilia holds, and therefore the document you hope for would be 'null & void' and the act would be totally illegal again.

However, something that may interest you: go and read Violets are Blue, by James Patterson. There's an entire scene describing covert necrophilia in that. In short: Get a job as a mortician, nobody will know :rolleyes:


"Moral" implications. I think I and others have put up a good argument against the "moral implications". And there is no reason to think that a person who would consent to this woulld not be of "sound mind". Murderers in court are convicted of their crimes without being classed as insane.
Original post by Psyk
I'm not saying anything about presuming consent. I'm saying the concept of consent simply does not apply to inanimate objects.

At what point does a corpse go from being a "person" to being just an object? So having sex with a corpse is rape, so what if you made a sex toy out of bone? Depending on the material it's made of, a dildo is essentially the same thing. Almost everything is made from material that used to be part of a living thing. Plastic is made from oil, oil forms from dead animals and plants. Where do you draw the line between it being "rape" and simply masturbation with a sex toy?


I suppose you draw the line when the object lacks that connection between animate and inanimate object. Obviously, that's subjective, but there's a big difference between a dead fish, and the oil that goes into making plastic. A few thousand years difference, I do believe...

For a human, that could be anything from decades to centuries, dependent on the rate of decomposition. You could still claim 'Law of the Animate' on a perfectly preserved thing like a mummy (in the case of the remains found at high altitude in the Andes, or in peat bogs, which have been dead for thousands of years but still look reasonably human), but may claim 'Law of the Inanimate' on something from 1500s which is just a bone. It would come down to how subjective the 'overall Law' is.


And why I'm taking this seriously is anyone's guess. Don't drink and use the internet, kids. :colondollar:


Original post by Unknown?
"Moral" implications. I think I and others have put up a good argument against the "moral implications". And there is no reason to think that a person who would consent to this woulld not be of "sound mind". Murderers in court are convicted of their crimes without being classed as insane.


Rather than going back and spending time seeking out these arguments, I'll just say that there is a moral aspect involved as much as you'd like to deny it. Insanity has nothing to do with it. It's whether you understand the implications of your act. The soundness of mind is just one stipulation on a Will. Moral implications is a separate one (maybe I blurred the line, my bad). You're potentially causing distress to the family, there is a morality issue involved, regardless of whether you are the only family member or not. A murderer is convicted on a moral basis, regardless of whether the victim has family or not...why should Necro be any different? [[No need to answer that, I'll use this time to go back and read your arguments :smile: ]]
(edited 13 years ago)
I think the lack of concent is an issue.
Reply 34
Original post by Psyk
Why should you need consent from something that is not alive? A dildo can't consent either. Necrophilia is probably the most disgusting thing I can think of, but it's clearly not a form of rape.


Stillborn porn! I win :smile:
Reply 35
I think it has mainly to do with moral values.
Reply 36
Original post by jonski
Stillborn porn! I win :smile:

I feel ill...
Original post by jonski
Stillborn porn! I win :smile:


IP ban request.
Well there is a slight consent issue :tongue:
Original post by Unknown?
Upset loved ones you say? What if the activity has been consented to between the two people in the relationship? Why should the "families" right matter more than the right of the dying person in this matter?


Your whole argument is that it harms no one. The family has a right not to have to think about their loved one being used in this way. It would be very upsetting if they found out and would make the grief that much harder to deal with; this therefore undermines your suggestion that it is harmless. You will now have to tell us why it should be legal, as your "why shouldn't it" argument has failed.

Also, even though I was interested enough to post seriously, I can't help but think:
:troll:

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