Here's a case for all you lawyers (or wannabe lawyers
):
A Bangladeshi couple get married, both in civil marriage and a nikah (Islamic marriage). Now in the Islamic marriage, the husband is obligated to give an agreed amount of money if the couple are divorced. After a lot of strangling between father in law and son in law, the sum of money is decided to be £30,001.
5 months later, the couple have a massive row and the husband divorces her. As far as the Islamic marriage is concerned, they are now divorced, however the civil marriage still stands. The woman demands the money promised at the time of the marriage, and the husband refuses. So they go to court.
The man's lawyer says that since the civil marriage still stands, the Islamic marriage should not be recognised by the court. Dr. Werner Menski (my professor
) is the lawyer representing the woman. He argues that the man should cough up because the mahr (the sum of money agreed) was related to the Islamic marriage and not to the civil marriage. After a couple of sessions, the judge passes the verdict that the woman should be paid £30,000.
The question for all you lawyers is: Why did he not pay the £1, since the agreed amount was £30,001 and not £30,000?