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C2 x C2 Abelian

Hi

I'm still getting my head around group theory and was just wondering about the property of a group being abelian is something that you can prove or if it is just the definition of that group.
For example when looking at the direct product of the cyclic group of order 2 with itself in my notes it simply says ab = ba. So is this just by the definition of the elements in the group or is it something that you can prove?

Thanks!
Reply 1
It's something you can prove.

Say your group is {e,a,b,ab}\{ e,a,b,ab \}. We want to find the value of baba. By closure of the group, we must have ba=e,a,bba = e,a,b or abab. If ba=eba=e then a=ea=baa=ba2=be=ba = ea = baa = ba^2=be=b, which isn't true since aba \ne b, so baeba \ne e. You can show that baaba \ne a and babba \ne b in similar ways.

Alternatively, you can show that ba=(ab)1ba = (ab)^{-1} and use the fact that the non-identity elements have order 2 to deduce that ba=abba=ab.
(edited 13 years ago)
Reply 2
Also, the direct product of two abelian groups is abelian.
Reply 3
Original post by nuodai
It's something you can prove.

Say your group is {e,a,b,ab}\{ e,a,b,ab \}. We want to find the value of baba. By closure of the group, we must have ba=e,a,bba = e,a,b or abab. If ba=eba=e then a=ea=baa=ba2=be=ba = ea = baa = ba^2=be=b, which isn't true since aba \ne b, so baeba \ne e. You can show that baaba \ne a and babba \ne b in similar ways.

Alternatively, you can show that ba=(ab)1ba = (ab)^{-1} and use the fact that the non-identity elements have order 2 to deduce that ba=abba=ab.


Thank you, thank you :smile:

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