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Show that 0 is an absorbing element? (First Year Uni, Pure Maths)

1) Show that 0 is absorbing element for x, i.e. that

for all a in set Z : 0a = 0,

using the basic properties of + and x in set Z.


And I'll sneak in a second question here...

2) Denote by -1 the opposite of 1. Prove that (-1)a = -1 for any a in set Z.


I'm really unsure about how to answer these after several attempts. Will appreciate any help, even if it's not a solution -- tips or recommended material for this stuff is fine.
Original post by Beet
1) Show that 0 is absorbing element for x, i.e. that

for all a in set Z : 0a = 0,

using the basic properties of + and x in set Z.


And I'll sneak in a second question here...

2) Denote by -1 the opposite of 1. Prove that (-1)a = -1 for any a in set Z.


I'm really unsure about how to answer these after several attempts. Will appreciate any help, even if it's not a solution -- tips or recommended material for this stuff is fine.

I can think of a proof for both of these that relies on distributivity.

For 1, we want to calculate 0a. If 0a=0 then what must (0+0)a be? Can you show that this is indeed the case?
You can use 1 to show 2 (find two expressions for (1-1)a).
This seems so pointless lol

0 is 0, nothing more.
Original post by TheCurlyHairedDude
This seems so pointless lol

0 is 0, nothing more.


The idea is to generalize to more interesting spaces (and to get a grip on the axioms so you can do this).
Reply 4
Original post by IrrationalNumber
For 1, we want to calculate 0a. If 0a=0 then what must (0+0)a be? Can you show that this is indeed the case? That's coming at it from the wrong angle. You need to show that 0a=0a+0a and then use cancellation to show that 0a=0; you're not showing that "if 0a=0 then (0+0)a=0".
Original post by nuodai
That's coming at it from the wrong angle. You need to show that 0a=0a+0a and then use cancellation to show that 0a=0; you're not showing that "if 0a=0 then (0+0)a=0".

I was trying to explain the method but I really didn't make it very clear.
Reply 6
Thanks for the comments. After reading through decided to give it another shot... though I still feel kinda uncomfortable with my answer. Any more help would be useful.

An attempt:

Question
1) Show that 0 is an absorbing element for x, i.e. that

for all a in set Z : 0a = 0,

using the basic properties of + and x in set Z.

Solution attempt

0a + 0a = 0(a + a)

Using distributive law we can say

for all a, 0 in set Z : 0(a + a) = 0a + 0a.

If, for all a in set Z : 0a = 0, is true then

a + a = a and 0a + 0a = 0.

Addition is commutative in set Z, so

a + a = a + a.

Using the neutral element property, we can say

a + a = a + a = a for all a in set Z

Therefore, 0 satisfies the value for a.



In summary,

0 = a.

So,

for all a, 0 in set Z : 0(a + a) = 0a + 0a,

can be rewritten as,

for all a in set Z : 0a = 0.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 7
Original post by Beet
Thanks for the comments. After reading through decided to give it another shot... though I still feel kinda uncomfortable with my answer. Any more help would be useful.

An attempt:

Question
1) Show that 0 is an absorbing element for x, i.e. that

for all a in set Z : 0a = 0,

using the basic properties of + and x in set Z.

Solution attempt

0a + 0a = 0(a + a)

Using distributive law we can say

for all a, 0 in set Z : 0(a + a) = 0a + 0a.

If, for all a in set Z : 0a = 0, is true then

a + a = a and 0a + 0a = 0.

Addition is commutative in set Z, so

a + a = a + a.

Using the neutral element property, we can say

a + a = a + a = a for all a in set Z

Therefore, 0 satisfies the value for a.



In summary,

0 = a.

So,

for all a, 0 in set Z : 0(a + a) = 0a + 0a,

can be rewritten as,

for all a in set Z : 0a = 0.


Nope, you've done this the wrong way round. You've said "if a=0 then a satisfies a logical consequence of a being equal to zero". Essentially, you've said "assume A is true; A=>B and B is true, therefore A is true", which is bad logic. Another example of doing this would be to say: assume 1=2. Then 0*1=0*2, i.e. 0=0, which is true, and therefore 1=2. But this is obviously nonsense.

However, you can use the fact that 0=0+0, which you know is true without making any assumptions beyond the axioms, and work from there. Try multiplying both sides by a and seeing what happens.
Original post by nuodai
Nope, you've done this the wrong way round. You've said "if a=0 then a satisfies a logical consequence of a being equal to zero". Essentially, you've said "assume A is true; A=>B and B is true, therefore A is true", which is bad logic. Another example of doing this would be to say: assume 1=2. Then 0*1=0*2, i.e. 0=0, which is true, and therefore 1=2. But this is obviously nonsense.

However, you can use the fact that 0=0+0, which you know is true without making any assumptions beyond the axioms, and work from there. Try multiplying both sides by a and seeing what happens.


You were definitely right. My post was confusing.
Reply 9
Original post by IrrationalNumber
You were definitely right. My post was confusing.


It's alright, we'll get there :p:
Reply 10
Ooh... I think this might work. Grateful for help. :smile:

Solution attempt 2

0 + 0 = 0,

multiplying both sides by a give us,

0a + 0a = 0a.

Addition is commutative in set Z, so

for all a, 0 in set Z : 0a + 0a = 0a + 0a.

A neutral element e set Z is defined as satisfying

n + e = e + n = n, where e = 0.

Thus, 0a = 0, because

0a + 0a = 0a + 0a = 0a.

Spoiler





In summary,

for all a in set Z : 0a = 0.
Reply 11
You've massively overcomplicated this for yourself and I still don't think it's right. [EDIT: on reflection it might be right, but it's not as straightforward as it should be.]

You've shown that 0a+0a=0a. Now just use the fact that (Z,+)(\mathbb{Z},+) is an additive group (and therefore 0a0a has an additive inverse) to cancel one 0a from both sides.

You don't even need to use commutativity of addition, let alone multiplication.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 12
Sorry. :s-smilie:

I had a gut feeling this question was simple, but my head was spinning on how answer it. Additive inverse didn't even cross my mind...
Reply 13
Solution attempt 3

0a + 0a = 0a.

Additive Inverse...

0a + (-0a) = 0.

Therefore,

(0a + 0a) - 0a = 0a - 0a,

becomes 0a = 0.
Reply 14
Original post by Beet
Solution attempt 3

0a + 0a = 0a.

Additive Inverse...

0a + (-0a) = 0.

Therefore,

(0a + 0a) - 0a = 0a - 0a,

becomes 0a = 0.


Yup. But all of your "therefore" and "becomes" waffle is a bit unnecessary. You could just set it out like:

0+0=00+0=0
(0+0)a=0a+0a=0a\Rightarrow (0+0)a=0a+0a=0a
0a+0a+(0a)=0a+(0a)\Rightarrow 0a+0a+(-0a) = 0a+(-0a)
0=0a\Rightarrow 0=0a

Nice and compact :p:
Original post by nuodai
Yup. But all of your "therefore" and "becomes" waffle is a bit unnecessary. You could just set it out like:

0+0=00+0=0
(0+0)a=0a+0a=0a\Rightarrow (0+0)a=0a+0a=0a
0a+0a+(0a)=0a+(0a)\Rightarrow 0a+0a+(-0a) = 0a+(-0a)
0=0a\Rightarrow 0=0a

Nice and compact :p:

Except really you do want therefore in this case. Implication is a logical connection ie 'if 0+0=0 then 0=0a'.

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