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    (Original post by alex_hk90)
    It's been a long time since I did econometrics but I think I would start with the one where you're averaging over the whole time period. Then you would have a fairly straightforward regression with the number of observations equal to the number of countries. I'm not entirely sure what you mean by "doing it yearly" - would this be a panel regression with number of observations equal to number of countries times number of years? If so you would probably want to omit the years for which there were no credit outlook changes and run an unbalanced panel regression.
    Cheers for the reply, I was planning on doing it over the entire time period anyway and just needed some clarification as my dissy tutor is **** at replying to e-mails. And I'd prefer to keep it simple.

    By yearly I meant something like...

    y
    Avg. change in 07 (GR)
    Avg. change in 08 (GR)
    Avg. change in 07 (ENG)
    Avg. change in 08 (ENG)
    etc

    x
    GDP of Greece in 2007
    GDP of Greece in 2008
    GDP of England in 2007
    GDP of England in 2008
    etc

    Some of the average changes for England would have been 0 and if I did it this way I was planning on just leaving the zero's in there so I'd have an equal number of dependent and independent variables. I just didn't know if the 0's would ruin my regression.
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    (Original post by Deshi)
    Cheers for the reply, I was planning on doing it over the entire time period anyway and just needed some clarification as my dissy tutor is **** at replying to e-mails. And I'd prefer to keep it simple.

    By yearly I meant something like...

    y
    Avg. change in 07 (GR)
    Avg. change in 08 (GR)
    Avg. change in 07 (ENG)
    Avg. change in 08 (ENG)
    etc

    x
    GDP of Greece in 2007
    GDP of Greece in 2008
    GDP of England in 2007
    GDP of England in 2008
    etc

    Some of the average changes for England would have been 0 and if I did it this way I was planning on just leaving the zero's in there so I'd have an equal number of dependent and independent variables. I just didn't know if the 0's would ruin my regression.
    I would say that the zeroes would ruin your regression because it would drastically reduce the variation in your dependent variable. If I was doing this I probably wouldn't use years at all, but rather have each observation made up of variables like y = bond rate change after outlook change and x = GDP of country at that time, which would give number of observations equal to number of outlook changes. You could factor in time if you wanted and do a panel regression (like previously mentioned) but that would be a bit more complicated.
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    (Original post by alex_hk90)
    I would say that the zeroes would ruin your regression because it would drastically reduce the variation in your dependent variable. If I was doing this I probably wouldn't use years at all, but rather have each observation made up of variables like y = bond rate change after outlook change and x = GDP of country at that time, which would give number of observations equal to number of outlook changes. You could factor in time if you wanted and do a panel regression (like previously mentioned) but that would be a bit more complicated.
    Yeah that's what I came up with like an hour ago, I probably should have thought of it earlier :p:. Cheers for the help mate. :yy:
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    (Original post by alex_hk90)
    x
    Sorry one last question. Youve been really helpful.

    For GDP per capita I'm getting different values from these two sources (http://data.worldbank.org/indicator/NY.GDP.PCAP.CD AND http://www.tradingeconomics.com/greece/gdp-per-capita) I'm guessing it's because one's in current prices and one's at constant prices since 2000. Which one do you reckon I should use?
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    (Original post by Deshi)
    Sorry one last question. Youve been really helpful.

    For GDP per capita I'm getting different values from these two sources (http://data.worldbank.org/indicator/NY.GDP.PCAP.CD AND http://www.tradingeconomics.com/greece/gdp-per-capita) I'm guessing it's because one's in current prices and one's at constant prices since 2000. Which one do you reckon I should use?
    I've never heard of the second source but yes it looks like the first one is not adjusted for inflation whereas the second one has been (it mentions this in the description). In general I would probably go for the one that has been adjusted for inflation (constant prices) so you don't have inflation as a hidden factor (which would affect some observations more than others).
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    I've just purchased Paul Ormerod's book Butterfly Economics. Has anyone read this before? What do you think of it? What are its strengths and weaknesses in terms of explaining how an economy works, and economic theory in general?
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    Hi guys, I'd love some help with a question that's part of my economics essay, it's as follows:

    "The first part of your essay should use indifference analysis to examine the discrepancies between receiving a high quality education versus one that is inferior. Although there are exceptions, in general high-income households can afford to pay for better schooling. Households with lower incomes may have no choice but to send their children to no (or low) fee schools. In your graphic interpretation of the scenario, use two different budget lines to show this. Also include a discussion about why receiving a first-rate education would result in high utility."

    I'm not really sure how to approach the indifference analysis, and any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks so much in advance
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    I am writing an essay for a competition and I want to write the conclusion however I don's want it to be boring like a typical exam essay yet still have intellectual rigour. Can you give me tips on how to do this?
    Please I need the help fast as the deadline is very near.Thank you for any information you provide
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    (Original post by Rakas21)
    Must have missed this thread for some reason.

    Love macro, hate micro.
    SAME, I don't understand how many people find Micro easier... Its so much more detailed and graph analysis based.
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    (Original post by Peju)
    SAME, I don't understand how many people find Micro easier... Its so much more detailed and graph analysis based.
    It doesn't have to be graph analysis, you can do it with equations.
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    Hey, I intend to study economics at uni and am looking at top unis like LSE, UCL, Warwick, etc.

    Just wanted some advice regarding choosing my A2's - is doing economics and business as two separate A levels highly jeapordising my chances at such unis? as i have noticed some mentions stating that such a combination is looked down at by unis due to some overlapping circular?

    Thanks
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    (Original post by Ess R Kay)
    Hey, I intend to study economics at uni and am looking at top unis like LSE, UCL, Warwick, etc.

    Just wanted some advice regarding choosing my A2's - is doing economics and business as two separate A levels highly jeapordising my chances at such unis? as i have noticed some mentions stating that such a combination is looked down at by unis due to some overlapping circular?

    Thanks
    It's not great if you have other choices available. Ideally you want to be doing something like:
    Maths and Further Maths (essential);
    Economics (preferable);
    Physics or Chemistry (for the science aspect);
    History or English Literature (for the arts aspect).
    Some alternatives may work as well, but Business Studies isn't really one of them and whatever you do you should have Maths, Further Maths and Economics as a base.
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    anyone think of any economics changes due to war (world war 2 in Germany specifically) I've already thought of a number, such as women's role, debts, industry etc - any other ideas? Thanks!

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Updated: August 20, 2013
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