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Reply 1
Since a=b then a^2 - ab = a^2 - a^2 = 0. So it's basically the old division by zero trick.
Reply 2
Almost... But - ab = 0. It doesn't make sense to divide by 0!
Reply 3
For years now mathematicians have suppressed the truth of 2=1, not convinced by that proof, try this one:

y = x^2 ∴ dy/dx = 2x

y = x^2 = x*x = x + x + x.... ∴ dy/dx = 1 + 1 + 1... = x

∴2x = x

∴2 =1

QED
Reply 4
And of course we can conclude that 2=-1 because 1=-1.

-1 = -1
1/-1 = -1/1
sqrt(1/-1) = sqrt(-1/1)
1/i = i/1
1 = i^2
1 = -1
Reply 5
And if 2 = -1 then (2 + 4)/3 = (-1 + 4)/3 therefore 2 = 1!!!!!
Reply 6
x=1
x^2=x
(x^2)-1=x-1
(x-1)(x+1)=(x-1)
x+1= (x-1)/(x-1)
x+1=1
1+1=1
2=1 :biggrin:

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You cant actually prove that 2=1, it's a basic mental construct called an axiom that we accept as true in order to do maths :biggrin:
DaneC
let a = b

= ab Multiply both sides by a

+ - 2ab = ab + - 2ab Add (a² - 2ab) to both sides

2(a² - ab) = - ab Factor the left, and collect like terms on the right

2 = 1 Divide both sides by (a² - ab)

Now, is it just me or does this look correct? I found it here http://mcraefamily.com/MathHelp/JokeProofFactoring.htm where it states thats its not real, but I can't see whats wrong with it.


This is rubbish - you're dividing by sero.
Reply 8
idoit


QED


Have forgotten...What does it mean?
Reply 9
quod erat demonstrandum - that which was to be proved.
Reply 10
I wrote that on a show that question out in full in my C2 exam cos i finished early. Anyway... I subsequently found out that I was wrong, and sent off to get a copy of the script. The examiner had written "so close, but no banana"
Reply 11
Hehehe :smile:
idoit
For years now mathematicians have suppressed the truth of 2=1, not convinced by that proof, try this one:

y = x^2 ∴ dy/dx = 2x

y = x^2 = x*x = x + x + x.... ∴ dy/dx = 1 + 1 + 1... = x

∴2x = x

∴2 =1

QED

Could someone explain this one?
Reply 13
Esquire
x=1
x^2=x
(x^2)-1=x-1
(x-1)(x+1)=(x-1)
x+1= (x-1)/(x-1)
x+1=1
1+1=1
2=1 :biggrin:

--------------

You cant actually prove that 2=1, it's a basic mental construct called an axiom that we accept as true in order to do maths :biggrin:



here again u r dividing by zero...
e-unit
Could someone explain this one?
How can you have "x" lots of x? You can have 2 lots of x, 5 lots of x, but how do you add together x lots of x? It's an undefined sequence.
Reply 15
cos²x + sin²x ≡ 1
cos²x ≡ 1 - sin²x
cos x ≡ √(1 - sin²x)
1 + cos x ≡ 1 + √(1 - sin²x)

Sub. x = pi

1 - 1 = 1 + √(1 - 0²)
0 = 2

Spoiler

Reply 16
Simba
cos²x + sin²x ≡ 1
cos²x ≡ 1 - sin²x
cos x ≡ √(1 - sin²x)
1 + cos x ≡ 1 + √(1 - sin²x)

Sub. x = pi

1 - 1 = 1 + √(1 - 0²)
0 = 2

Spoiler

]

Taking square roots requires the use of the double plus-or-minus sign (or absolute values). In this case, the plus sign gives an odd result, and the minus sign is the one that gives the right conclusion
idoit
For years now mathematicians have suppressed the truth of 2=1, not convinced by that proof, try this one:

y = x^2 ∴ dy/dx = 2x

y = x^2 = x*x = x + x + x.... ∴ dy/dx = 1 + 1 + 1... = x

∴2x = x

∴2 =1

QED


sometimes my teacher does
∴2x = x

∴2 =1
///
QED

What do the three lines mean?...
Reply 18
it just shows how ridiculous all of these supposed 'proofs' are, because in essence you are performing an invalid mathematical calculation. If 2x=x then it is not valid to divide by x, because it is zero.
I think your teacher is being ironic. :smile:
john-boro
it just shows how ridiculous all of these supposed 'proofs' are, because in essence you are performing an invalid mathematical calculation. If 2x=x then it is not valid to divide by x, because it is zero.
I think your teacher is being ironic. :smile:


no no... i was using the "proof" as a beginning... i was asking what the three lines...."///" mean..... :p:

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