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Probability

Hey,

I am hoping someone can guide me in the right direction with a few questions...

1) Can A and B be independent if the set of A n B is empty?

I think it's NO because if A n B are empty, they are mutually exclusive and there are no intersections, while if they are independent, i THINK they have intersections... :confused:

2) Can A and B be independent if A is a member of the set of B?

I am confused with this one because i am not exactly sure what "A is a member of..." means. Does it means that there is an overlap between the two or the are just mutually exclusive?

3) If a basketball player has a 2% chance of hitting a cross court shot, is it a valid argument to suggest that it is mathematically certain that he makes the shot by the time he has tried 50 times?

I think it's NO, but i'm not sure how to express the answer.

Thanks.
1) If A and B are mutually exclusive, then A n B is zero, by definition. Whereas independent means A occurring does not affect the probability B occurring. If they are M.E. then if A happens B cannot (no matter what the probabilities), and the fact AnB is empty suggests..?

2) A is a member of B, is kind of like saying All A's are B's, but not all B's are A's. On a Venn diagram, the A circle would be entirely inside the B circle.

3) .. is there something wrong with just saying no? or do you mean you're not sure how to justify your answer?
1. If they aren't independent, P(AnB)=...
2. If they aren't independent, P(B|A)=...
3. You can just calculate the probability at 50 tries.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 3
Original post by FireGarden
1) If A and B are mutually exclusive, then A n B is zero, by definition. Whereas independent means A occurring does not affect the probability B occurring. If they are M.E. then if A happens B cannot (no matter what the probabilities), and the fact AnB is empty suggests..?

2) A is a member of B, is kind of like saying All A's are B's, but not all B's are A's. On a Venn diagram, the A circle would be entirely inside the B circle.

3) .. is there something wrong with just saying no? or do you mean you're not sure how to justify your answer?


1) So YES they can occur ?

3) I mean i am not sure how to justify my answer. Do i have to write an answer saying why it is wrong, or can i just use maths?
Reply 4
Original post by Rebellious-Steve
1. If they're independent, P(AnB)=...
2. If they are independent, P(B|A)=...
3. You can just calculate the probability at 50 tries.


3) Do you mean (0.98) ^50 ? or...
Original post by urghhh
3) Do you mean (0.98) ^50 ? or...


Well that's the probability that he never gets a successful shot. So just do 1- that.
(edited 12 years ago)
Original post by urghhh
1) So YES they can occur ?

3) I mean i am not sure how to justify my answer. Do i have to write an answer saying why it is wrong, or can i just use maths?


1) No they can't. AnB is zero, which means A and B are mutually exclusive. Since being mutually exclusive means if A occurs, B can't and vice versa, they clearly affect each other and therefore cannot be independent.

3) to be honest, neither am I. But you are right; it's not a valid argument.
Reply 7
Original post by FireGarden
1) No they can't. AnB is zero, which means A and B are mutually exclusive. Since being mutually exclusive means if A occurs, B can't and vice versa, they clearly affect each other and therefore cannot be independent.

3) to be honest, neither am I. But you are right; it's not a valid argument.


right thanks.

2) So that means A is SMALLER than B... And because Independent means "A occurring does not affect the probability B occurring", it means they cant exist together because they are within the same circle?

God I hate probability...
Original post by urghhh
right thanks.

2) So that means A is SMALLER than B... And because Independent means "A occurring does not affect the probability B occurring", it means they cant exist together because they are within the same circle?

God I hate probability...


Haha! Well yeah; If A occurs, then by the fact A is a subset of B, B occurred. At the end of it all, B is independent of A, but A is not independent of B (it literally depends on whether B has happened if A can even happen at all).

So to the original question.. no, they cannot be independent of each other.
Reply 9
Original post by FireGarden
1) No they can't. AnB is zero, which means A and B are mutually exclusive. Since being mutually exclusive means if A occurs, B can't and vice versa, they clearly affect each other and therefore cannot be independent.

3) to be honest, neither am I. But you are right; it's not a valid argument.


Original post by FireGarden
Haha! Well yeah; If A occurs, then by the fact A is a subset of B, B occurred. At the end of it all, B is independent of A, but A is not independent of B (it literally depends on whether B has happened if A can even happen at all).

So to the original question.. no, they cannot be independent of each other.


Unless I've forgotten some definitions, I'm not sure I agree with these.
1)
If B is empty, P(AnB)=0=P(A)*P(B), so A, B independent.

3) Let A be the whole set. If B is a subset of A, we find P(AnB)=P(B)=P(B)*P(A), thus independent.

Of course, it's possible I missed some conditions on A,B.
Original post by Slumpy

If B is empty, P(AnB)=0=P(A)*P(B), so A, B independent.


This is only true if A or B have 0 probability. In general, for A and B which have non-zero probability, A and B are either mutually exclusive or independent; they cannot be both. Since AnB is zero, this implies mutually exclusive, which implies not independent.


3) Let A be the whole set. If B is a subset of A, we find P(AnB)=P(B)=P(B)*P(A), thus independent.



I'm a little lost with this.. A is supposed to be a subset of B, and since A is entirely contained by B, then P(AnB)=P(A). However if A and B are non-zero, and not 1, then P(AnB)=P(A)P(B) implies P(A)=P(A)P(B) which cannot hold, and thus cannot be independent. More intuitively, because A is a subset of B, that makes it a necessary requirement that B has to occur to let A occur, and that means they are not independant of eachother; A needs B to happen.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 11
Original post by FireGarden
This is only true if A or B have 0 probability. In general, for A and B which have non-zero probability, A and B are either mutually exclusive or independent; they cannot be both. Since AnB is zero, this implies mutually exclusive, which implies not independent.


The question was can this happen. And I've given an example to show that yes, this can happen.


Original post by FireGarden

I'm a little lost with this.. A is supposed to be a subset of B, and since A is entirely contained by B, then P(AnB)=P(A). However if A and B are non-zero, and not 1, then P(AnB)=P(A)P(B) implies P(A)=P(A)P(B) which cannot hold, and thus cannot be independent. More intuitively, because A is a subset of B, that makes it a necessary requirement that B has to occur to let A occur, and that means they are not independant of eachother; A needs B to happen.


Again, you're missing things. I agree up to P(A)=P(A)P(B). But if we let B be the whole space, P(B)=1, so this can hold. Equally true if P(A)=0(ie A empty). So again, independence is possible.

Although in both these cases, A or B is empty or full, so if there are more restrictions on A or B than has been stated, these may not hold.


To OP, for question 3, consider P_k=P(kth shot misses). Clearly the P_k are independent, so you can work out the probability that he misses every shot. If it's non-zero, you're done.

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