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Reply 140
Using the impressment argument as the most important factor in the War of 1812 is just as myopic as claiming it was an argument over slavery that caused the American Civil War.
Quick Q; if the US army was so skilful then why did it fail to win one war against Britain's reserve forces while Britain fought two wars?

I advise you read Bill Bryson's Made in America. It's an interesting read not only about American language but its history too. I'd pay attention to him too; they didn't make him the chancellor of Durham University for nothing. For the record it doesn't cover the 1812 war.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 142
Original post by CJM13
It was merely a reflection of how the rest of the world views American arrogance.

Which you have so amply demonstrated.


Besides America's enemies like North Korea. Most countries of the World view America in a good light. Only few like yourself are troubled by the fact that the US is currently the top dog. I'm sure there were people who were sour when the British Empire was at the top spot. It comes with the territory.
Reply 143
Original post by Swanbow
Using the impressment argument as the most important factor in the War of 1812 is just as myopic as claiming it was an argument over slavery that caused the American Civil War.


Wow.You are truly confused. The US Civil was ONLY about slavery. I guess WW2 wasn't about Germany invading :rolleyes:

The 1812 war was about protecting US sovereignty which was being threatened by British impressment.
Reply 144
Original post by drknoble
Firstly, linking to wikipedia pages with "republic" in its title doesn't prove they were republics, nor do they prove they were democratic. The Dutch republic doesn't exist and wasn't democratic as many of the seats were hereditary.

link

San Marino didn't have the first written constitution with a bill of rights. It's "constitution" is a collection of laws and books. Some British call their collection of laws a constitution, but it's not.


I see that you still haven't defined 'democratic republic', I'll give you one more chance, else I have better things to do than sit here going around in circles, and I'm sure the same goes for you too.

I'll accept your problems with the Dutch system, but I'm sorry your refutation of the San Marino system is desperate at best. Its system was a series of laws which defined the powers of the people and the state, and included those laid out in a series of books. As the Oxford English Dictionary defines a constitution as:
A body of principles according to which a state or organisation is governed

San Marino therefore had a constitution, a written constitution just as the Corsican Republic did (which I note you haven't even mentioned). Both were wholly elected. Before you suggest that the Corsican Republic wasn't the right time period, it fell just 7 years before the declaration of independence, that's fairly contemporary. I should think that if a regime fell back in 2005, you'd still remember it today.

What actual democratic difference to the people does it make whether that constitution is in a single document or several books? It sums up to make a single body of legislature. If I wanted to be pedantic, I could point out that due to all its amendments, the US constitution is now multiple documents. Yes, maybe the amendments + the original constitution together make one legal system, but the same is true of San Marino law (incidentally, you don't need a separate bill of rights to be democratic, those rights can be easily held within the regular constitution, it makes no difference). I believe that you've started with the mindset that only the US is allowed to fit your criteria, in which case you're doing nothing but being biased by your assumptions. Instead of proving the bold claim that America was the first modern democratic republic, you're now simply demonstrating that the US was the first country to have a system of government which is exactly the same as the US government. That isn't a claim that I would disagree with, but the US system still wasn't the first government to be both democratic and republic.

I'm sure that you're a lovely person but you're doing nothing to dispel my suspicion that history lessons in US schools are nothing but 60 minutes of flag-waving, chest-beating and chanting 'USA! USA!' whilst playing the theme to Team America.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 145
Original post by alexs2602
Quick Q; if the US army was so skilful then why did it fail to win one war against Britain's reserve forces while Britain fought two wars?

I advise you read Bill Bryson's Made in America. It's an interesting read not only about American language but its history too. I'd pay attention to him too; they didn't make him the chancellor of Durham University for nothing. For the record it doesn't cover the 1812 war.


The USA did win. Britain failed to invade the USA; it failed to prop up a puppet indian empire; the US stopped impressment and the US won a lot of battles against britain.
Reply 146
Original post by drknoble

Canadians celebrate Thanksgiving too. There's a difference between holidays and fabricating history.

Their Thanksgiving has a different story behind it though doesn't it?

Original post by drknoble

But Canada wasn't a gov. entity, it was all part of the British Empire. Some places that now make up the US exist, but we don't celebrate the 7 years war because the government via the military of the United States of America never took part.

But those colonies still had their own governments. It was just before they were reorganised to have an overarching government in North America. I think the reason Americans don't celebrate the 7 years war is because American pride is largely based on their independence from Britain. Where as in Canada, they take pride in being the continuation of several British colonies.

Original post by drknoble

America won in the US revolutionary war and then the 1812 war, I wouldn't call two victories in a row luck.

Well I still think that if America won, so did Britain/Canada. Both sides kept all their territory and didn't concede anything. Anyway, what I meant was it was lucky that impressment stopped, as in the war had little to do with stopping it. I'm not saying it was luck that the war ended. I'll admit that if the US hadn't put up a good fight, the British probably would have pressed on tried to take some of their territory, even if that wasn't one of their aims from the start. I'm sure the same is true the other way round.


Original post by drknoble

Monarchy is the direct opposite of democracy. Democracy is will of the people via voting. Monarchy is will of one. A constitutional monarchy can never be a true democracy. The Fact that the monarchy can never be removed in the name of "tradition" is a direct contradiction to democracy.

But with a constitutional monarchy, the country is run by the will of the people via voting. The monarch doesn't run the country. Representatives voted for by the people do. And who says the monarch can never be removed? Plenty of countries have voted to become republics. There may not be a specific legal route to becoming a republic in the UK, but if the people really wanted to get rid of the monarchy, Parliament would make a law allowing them to do it. Parliament can do that, because they are the ones with the actual power, not the monarch. Jamaica is considering doing that, and Australia has toyed with the idea in the past. Malta and many other former British territories have done that.

What do you think about Norway? It's a pretty successful country with a monarch. In 1905 they became independent from Sweden and they had a vote to decide whether to become a republic or have a monarchy. They voted to have a monarch. How is that not democratic? I believe that if we had a referendum about becoming a republic in the UK right now, the people would vote to keep the monarchy.

Original post by drknoble

You can't be a true republic unless you're democracy, and you can't be a true democracy unless you're a republic.


After looking it up, I think you're correct about republics having to be democracies to be true republics. In common usage it just means any country that doesn't have a hereditary ruler, but there is a more technical definition that means the country is run "by the people" in some form.

But here's the definition of democracy (from the oxford dictionary):

"a system of government by the whole population or all the eligible members of a state, typically through elected representatives"

Constitutional monarchies fit that definition because the government is voted for by the people. The monarch is not the government.
Reply 147
Original post by Craig_D
I see that you still haven't defined 'democratic republic', I'll give you one more chance, else I have better things to do than sit here going around in circles, and I'm sure the same goes for you too.


There's no special definition for democratic republic. I'm referring to the general definition. You on the other hand admitted your definition was based on your opinion.

Original post by Craig_D

I'll accept your problems with the Dutch system, but I'm sorry your refutation of the San Marino system is desperate at best. Its system was a series of laws which defined the powers of the people and the state, and included those laid out in a series of books. As the Oxford English Dictionary defines a constitution as: A body of principles according to which a state or organisation is governed


Your broad interpretation of that Oxford definition means every country in the history of the world has a constitution, which is not the case.

Original post by Craig_D

San Marino therefore had a constitution, a written constitution just as the Corsican Republic did (which I note you haven't even mentioned). Both were wholly elected. Before you suggest that the Corsican Republic wasn't the right time period, it fell just 7 years before the declaration of independence, that's fairly contemporary. I should think that if a regime fell back in 2005, you'd still remember it today.


What you've chosen to ignore is the fact that neither San Marino or Corsican have or had a written constitution with a bill of rights. Nor have you shown what makes these countries republics or democracies.

Original post by Craig_D

Then

What actual democratic difference to the people does it make whether that constitution is in a single document or several books? It sums up to make a single body of legislature. If I wanted to be pedantic, I could point out that due to all its amendments, the US constitution is now multiple documents. Yes, maybe the amendments + the original constitution together make one legal system, but the same is true of San Marino law (incidentally, you don't need a separate bill of rights to be democratic, those rights can be easily held within the regular constitution, it makes no difference). I believe that you've started with the mindset that only the US is allowed to fit your criteria, in which case you're doing nothing but being biased by your assumptions. Instead of proving the bold claim that America was the first modern democratic republic, you're now simply demonstrating that the US was the first country to have a system of government which is exactly the same as the US government. That isn't a claim that I would disagree with, but the US system still wasn't the first government to be both democratic and republic.

I'm sure that you're a lovely person but you're doing nothing to dispel my suspicion that history lessons in US schools are nothing but 60 minutes of flag-waving, chest-beating and chanting 'USA! USA!' whilst playing the theme to Team America.


If these San Marino books are a constitution, then the British could also claim all thier laws are a single constitution as well. A constitution should be a "framework" of the government. How can a collection of books be a framework? In your broad interpretation, how many books can you have before it's no longer a constitution? I mean think about it. When were will of all these books written? Who reads and verifies that all laws follow these books? It's ridiculous.

You're really reaching for this aren't you? All because you'd hate for the US to be known as the world's first modern republic and democracy with the world's first written constitution and bill of rights. But facts are facts and yours don't hold up.
Original post by drknoble
You still don't get it. They were the same. Fact of the matter is the British were kidnapping US citizens knowingly provoking a war.


They weren't US citizens, they were British citizens. British law at the time didn't allow British citizens to change nationality.

Original post by drknoble

The US did teach the British a lesson of don't threaten US sovereignty.


Britain taught the US a lesson: Don't invade Canada, or our militia and reserves will burn down your Capital.
The blockade and impressment were measures solely implemented to fight Napoleon, so the fact that the UK didn't do these things after the war, by which time Napoleon was defeated, is irrelevant.
How I know you are talking nonsense, is if the United States had truely 'taught' Britain a lesson, the UK wouldn't have blockaded the high seas during the Great War. US merchants wanted to trade with both the Entente and the Central Powers, but the Royal Navy stood their ground and the United States was forced into trading only with the Entente. One could even say that the United States was bullied into only trading with whom Britain dictated that they could trade with.

Original post by drknoble

Obviously Britain was the instigator of the war by threatening US sovereignty with impressment. Name one country that would allow something like impressment?


The US was the only country that was harbouring British fugitives, so the point is mute. The vast majority of historians think that the US started the war, being the ones who fired the first shots and all. But obviously, you know better :rolleyes:
Original post by drknoble
The US never wanted the British territory Canada. The war of 1812 was about protecting US sovereignty which was being threatened by British bullying and impressment. The British provoked the young and weak US to the point where they had no choice but to take action or risk becoming a target for invasion. The US attacked the closest British territory, was victorious in securing its sovereignty, and the rest is history.


The British were fighting for their very survival against one of the greatest armies ever amassed... but they decided to attack the US anyway. That was bold of them, attacking without an army. And of course, statements of prominent polticians like Thomas Jefferson like:

The acquisition of Canada this year, as far as the neighborhood of Quebec, will be a mere matter of marching, and will give us experience for the attack of Halifax the next, and the final expulsion of England from the American continent.


clearly don't tell us all about the american imperial ambitions at the time. America can't actually do anything wrong, obviously. It was all Britain's fault. We bow down to your inherent and unquestionable superiority.
(edited 12 years ago)
Original post by drknoble

If these San Marino books are a constitution, then the British could also claim all thier laws are a single constitution as well. A constitution should be a "framework" of the government. How can a collection of books be a framework? In your broad interpretation, how many books can you have before it's no longer a constitution? I mean think about it. When were will of all these books written? Who reads and verifies that all laws follow these books? It's ridiculous.


The British can claim all their laws are a single constitution. A constitution is merely a set of all powerful laws and principles governing an organisation, in this case a country. The British doctrine of Parliamentary sovereignty means that these all powerful laws and principles are any pieces of legislation passed by the House. A constitution doesn't have to codified and written out on a single statute. In the UK's case, it would be pointless since the House can't pass laws that bind it's future self and doesn't need a US style codified constitution to follow. This is yet another example of America thinking that it's way of thinking must be the only way of thinking.
Original post by nexttime
The British were fighting for their very survival against one of the greatest armies ever amassed... but they decided to attack the US anyway. That was bold of them, attacking without an army. And of course, statements of prominent polticians like Thomas Jefferson like:



clearly don't tell us all about the american imperial ambitions at the time. America can't actually do anything wrong, obviously. It was all Britain's fault. We bow down to your inherent and unquestionable superiority.


Knowing him, he'll think you were being sincere.
Reply 152
Original post by Psyk
Their Thanksgiving has a different story behind it though doesn't it?


None of that changes the fact that the US and Canada celebrate holidays based on traditions not born in their countries. It's the same for Christmas, Halloween, Easter, etc. Not to mention other countries do the same the - Japanese now celebrate Christmas.

Thats's the reason I said there's a difference between celebrating a holiday and fabricating history.

Original post by Psyk

But those colonies still had their own governments. It was just before they were reorganised to have an overarching government in North America. I think the reason Americans don't celebrate the 7 years war is because American pride is largely based on their independence from Britain. Where as in Canada, they take pride in being the continuation of several British colonies.


But they were British sub-governments with British appointed governors, not a Canadian government because Canada as a government entity did not exist.

The real reason why the US doesn't celebrate the 7 years war is because- it doesn't make sense to celebrate a war you government never fought. If it's all a "continuation", do Jamaicans get to celebrate the 1812 war too? What about the Australians?

Original post by Psyk

Well I still think that if America won, so did Britain/Canada. Both sides kept all their territory and didn't concede anything. Anyway, what I meant was it was lucky that impressment stopped, as in the war had little to do with stopping it. I'm not saying it was luck that the war ended. I'll admit that if the US hadn't put up a good fight, the British probably would have pressed on tried to take some of their territory, even if that wasn't one of their aims from the start. I'm sure the same is true the other way round.


This is why you're still confused, you think the war was about territory. It was about the British threatening US sovereignty through impressment. The US succeeded in it's objective of securing its sovereignty and ending impressment.


Original post by Psyk

But with a constitutional monarchy, the country is run by the will of the people via voting. The monarch doesn't run the country. Representatives voted for by the people do. And who says the monarch can never be removed? Plenty of countries have voted to become republics. There may not be a specific legal route to becoming a republic in the UK, but if the people really wanted to get rid of the monarchy, Parliament would make a law allowing them to do it. Parliament can do that, because they are the ones with the actual power, not the monarch. Jamaica is considering doing that, and Australia has toyed with the idea in the past. Malta and many other former British territories have done that.


A constitutional monarchy will never be a true democracy because it has the word "monarchy' in it and it's not a republic because of said monarchy. The only reason these monarchies are still around in the year 2012 is because they are monarchies, and run on power which was never given to them by the people. And this power is strong enough to keep them in place. The only way to remove a monarchy, is to have a revolution.

Original post by Psyk

What do you think about Norway? It's a pretty successful country with a monarch. In 1905 they became independent from Sweden and they had a vote to decide whether to become a republic or have a monarchy. They voted to have a monarch. How is that not democratic? I believe that if we had a referendum about becoming a republic in the UK right now, the people would vote to keep the monarchy.


Nice or dormant tyranny is stil tyranny.

That's the major difference between true democracies and constitutional monarchies, democracies would never vote to prop up an unelected person for an endless term.


Original post by Psyk

After looking it up, I think you're correct about republics having to be democracies to be true republics. In common usage it just means any country that doesn't have a hereditary ruler, but there is a more technical definition that means the country is run "by the people" in some form.

But here's the definition of democracy (from the oxford dictionary):

"a system of government by the whole population or all the eligible members of a state, typically through elected representatives"

Constitutional monarchies fit that definition because the government is voted for by the people. The monarch is not the government.


The reason why constitutional monarchies don't fit the definition fully is because the monarchy is not an elected representative and holds the position for an endless term. That one part, messes everything up.
Reply 153
Original post by pol pot noodles
They weren't US citizens, they were British citizens. British law at the time didn't allow British citizens to change nationality.


Some were US citizens, others were immigrant or those seeking refuge. Fact is they were on US territory and property, and their classification is for the US to determine. The British were threatening US sovereignty and provoked the war by not respecting that.

Original post by pol pot noodles

Britain taught the US a lesson: Don't invade Canada, or our militia and reserves will burn down your Capital.
The blockade and impressment were measures solely implemented to fight Napoleon, so the fact that the UK didn't do these things after the war, by which time Napoleon was defeated, is irrelevant.
How I know you are talking nonsense, is if the United States had truely 'taught' Britain a lesson, the UK wouldn't have blockaded the high seas during the Great War. US merchants wanted to trade with both the Entente and the Central Powers, but the Royal Navy stood their ground and the United States was forced into trading only with the Entente. One could even say that the United States was bullied into only trading with whom Britain dictated that they could trade with.


Wrong again. The US taught the British to respect US sovereignty, and from then on they applied the lesson they learned by not longer threatening US sovereignty.

Th bullying via impressment and blockade by the British is what provoked the war, which initiated the US taught lesson for British Empire.


Original post by pol pot noodles

The US was the only country that was harbouring British fugitives, so the point is mute. The vast majority of historians think that the US started the war, being the ones who fired the first shots and all. But obviously, you know better :rolleyes:


That's some great work of fiction you got there.
Reply 154
Original post by nexttime
The British were fighting for their very survival against one of the greatest armies ever amassed... but they decided to attack the US anyway. That was bold of them, attacking without an army. And of course, statements of prominent polticians like Thomas Jefferson like:



clearly don't tell us all about the american imperial ambitions at the time. America can't actually do anything wrong, obviously. It was all Britain's fault. We bow down to your inherent and unquestionable superiority.


US politicians say a lot of stuff including the founding father, who were politicians.

America's objective was to secure its sovereignty and gain respect, and had to take action and attack or acquire if possible the closest British territory. The young and weak US underestimated the British because they thought they were preoccupied, but still achieved its objective.
Original post by drknoble
US politicians say a lot of stuff including the founding father, who were politicians.

America's objective was to secure its sovereignty and gain respect, and had to take action and attack or acquire if possible the closest British territory. The young and weak US underestimated the British because they thought they were preoccupied, but still achieved its objective.


So you admit that the US was trying to take territory, and that they were over-confident? Politicians say stuff, but also do stuff, like launch invasions.

But aside from all this nationalistic BS - to address the original question: you don't have to be represented by a government to be proud of something. Football fans can be proud of their team winning, rebels can be proud of their military victories, tibetans can be proud of tibet, even if it isn't a country. I'd say the 1812 war was perhaps the first time Canada developed a national identity. They had held out against the odds, with most fighters living in the local area, and they can be proud of that (at least until British regulars arrived). That's proud as Canadians, a subset of British at the time (just like Tibet and China, or Yankees fan and american), but still a valid identification.
Reply 156
Original post by pol pot noodles
The British can claim all their laws are a single constitution. A constitution is merely a set of all powerful laws and principles governing an organisation, in this case a country. The British doctrine of Parliamentary sovereignty means that these all powerful laws and principles are any pieces of legislation passed by the House. A constitution doesn't have to codified and written out on a single statute. In the UK's case, it would be pointless since the House can't pass laws that bind it's future self and doesn't need a US style codified constitution to follow. This is yet another example of America thinking that it's way of thinking must be the only way of thinking.


Britain has acknowledged that it has no constitution. So you're wasting your time. After the US wrote its constitution, a constitution craze sprang up around the world. Some in Britain wanted to create a written constitution like the US, but the majority were spiteful and frequently wrote that Britain should avoid constitutions and that Britain was better without a constitution. It's all historical fact.

Here's a keynote that explains it better and explains why the US has the worlds first written constitution with the world's first bill of rights.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VA29TbsNmkQ

Around 5:35 she highlights 4 innovations which make the US constitution the first written democratic republic constitution in the world.

Around 11:32 she further explains why the written constitution was pioneered by the US.

Around 16:19 she begins to explain why Britain has no constitution.
Reply 157
Original post by nexttime
So you admit that the US was trying to take territory, and that they were over-confident? Politicians say stuff, but also do stuff, like launch invasions.


Because the British were threatening US sovereignty, the US declared war. In war you have to attack, and when you attack, you usually try to acquire territory. This is standard practice. As I've said, acquiring British territory was never the objective, the objective was to declare war and fight in order to secure and assert US sovereignty - this was achieved, and therefore the US was victorious

Original post by nexttime

But aside from all this nationalistic BS - to address the original question: you don't have to be represented by a government to be proud of something. Football fans can be proud of their team winning, rebels can be proud of their military victories, tibetans can be proud of tibet, even if it isn't a country. I'd say the 1812 war was perhaps the first time Canada developed a national identity. They had held out against the odds, with most fighters living in the local area, and they can be proud of that (at least until British regulars arrived). That's proud as Canadians, a subset of British at the time (just like Tibet and China, or Yankees fan and american), but still a valid identification.


That doesn't make sense because "Canada" was not a government entity when that war took place. Not to mention the fact that Canadians are celebrating a mythology based on an imaginary "Canada victory", when in fact Canada didn't exist, and it was a US victory over the British.

My main point is- don't rewrite history, when you didn't even participate.

This is why Canadians are struggling with an inferiority complex and identity crisis because they are basing their national identity on fiction.
Original post by drknoble
Some were US citizens, others were immigrant or those seeking refuge. Fact is they were on US territory and property, and their classification is for the US to determine. The British were threatening US sovereignty and provoked the war by not respecting that.


Can you read? British law at the time did not recognise the right of British citizens to give up British citizenship. In the eyes of the British government, the US had no right to nuetralise these citizens. Be they a convict, a deserter, an immigrant or a refugee, they were British citizens and privy to be conscripted at that time of war.

Original post by drknoble

Wrong again. The US taught the British to respect US sovereignty, and from then on they applied the lesson they learned by not longer threatening US sovereignty.


Again, can you read? How exactly do you explain the Royal Navy blockade of Europe during the Great War? During the Great War, US merchant ships were boarded, inspected and barred from trading with the Central Powers. Some lesson that must have been, if Britain totally and completely disregarded it.

Original post by drknoble

Th bullying via impressment and blockade by the British is what provoked the war, which initiated the US taught lesson for British Empire.


Don't actually bother to respond to any of my points, just keep repeating the same old tired nonsense.

Original post by drknoble

That's some great work of fiction you got there.


Just because you don't like what you hear, doesn't make it fiction. Here's an overview of the views generally accepted by historians, from the War of 1812 wikipedia page. They all have differing views, however one thing is for sure- No one thinks that Britain lost, and the view that Britain alone was victorious has a bigger following than the view that America alone was victorious.

Historians have differing and more complex interpretations. They are in full agreement that the native Indians were the war's clear losers, losing land, power and any hope of keeping their semi-autonomous status. Historians also agree that ending the war with neither side gaining or losing territory allowed for the peaceful settlement of boundary disputes and for the opening of a permanent era of good will and friendly relations between the U.S. and Canada.

In recent decades the view of the majority of historians has been that the war ended in stalemate, with the Treaty of Ghent closing a war that had become militarily inconclusive. Neither side wanted to continue fighting since the main causes had disappeared and since there were no large lost territories for one side or the other to reclaim by force. Insofar as they see the war's untriumphant resolution as allowing two centuries of peaceful and mutually beneficial intercourse between the U.S., Britain and Canada, these historians often conclude that all three nations were the "real winners" of the War of 1812. These writers often add that the war could have been avoided in the first place by better diplomacy. It is seen as a mistake for everyone concerned because it was badly planned and marked by multiple fiascoes and failures on both sides, as shown especially by the repeated American failure to seize parts of Canada, and the failed British invasions of New Orleans and upstate New York.[135][136]

However, other scholars hold that the war constituted a British victory and an American defeat. They argue that the British achieved their military objectives in 1812 (by stopping the repeated American invasions of Canada) and that Canada retained her independence of the United States. By contrast, they say, the Americans suffered a defeat when their armies failed to achieve their war goal of seizing part or all of Canada. Additionally, they argue the US lost as it failed to stop impressment, which the British refused to repeal until the end of the Napoleonic Wars, and the US actions had no effect on the orders in council, which were rescinded before the war started.[137][138]

A second minority view is that both the US and Britain won the war that is, both achieved their main objectives, while the Indians were the losing party.[139][140] The British won by losing no territories and achieving their great war goal, the total defeat of Napoleon. U.S. won by (1) securing her honour and successfully resisting a powerful empire once again,[nb 3] thus winning a "second war of independence";[141] (2) ending the threat of Indian raids and the British plan for a semi-independent Indian sanctuary—thereby opening an unimpeded path for the United States' westward expansion—and (3) stopping the Royal Navy from restricting American trade and impressing American sailors.[142]
Original post by drknoble
Britain has acknowledged that it has no constitution. So you're wasting your time.


When has Britain ever acknowleged that? That's straight up bull****. It doesn't have a codifed constitution. Read up the bloody definition of the word. A constitution is a set of principles and rules governing an organisation. In the UK's case, it is the laws put out by Parliament.

Original post by drknoble

After the US wrote its constitution, a constitution craze sprang up around the world. Some in Britain wanted to create a written constitution like the US, but the majority were spiteful and frequently wrote that Britain should avoid constitutions and that Britain was better without a constitution. It's all historical fact.


If by historical fact, you mean completely fabricated nonsense on your part. You have just completely made that up; admit it. As I said, read a damn dictionary.

Original post by drknoble

Here's a keynote that explains it better and explains why the US has the worlds first written constitution with the world's first bill of rights.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VA29TbsNmkQ

Around 5:35 she highlights 4 innovations which make the US constitution the first written democratic republic constitution in the world.

Around 11:32 she further explains why the written constitution was pioneered by the US.

Around 16:19 she begins to explain why Britain has no constitution.


Except as I said, your understanding of what a constitution is is wholefully far from the truth.

Here is the Oxford English definition of constitution:
a body of fundamental principles or established precedents according to which a state or other organization is acknowledged to be governed:

Here is a page explaining what a constitution actually is. I suggest you read it.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution

Here is a page explaining the UK constitution
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_the_United_Kingdom

Parliament itself is even helpful enough to detail out the terms of the British constitution.
http://www.parliament.uk/about/how/sovereignty/

Just incase you were left in any doubt, or you're just being stubborn as usual, here's a helpful report from Oxford University.
http://www.oup.com/uk/orc/bin/9780199289721/broadbent_ch01.pdf


To wrap up, here's a short video summarising what you are:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WrjwaqZfjIY

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