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LOTR: Why were there no black hobbits?

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    You see what happened was, the black hobbits attempted to pass through the Shire's border control. However, the racist border control guy just shouted "YOU SHALL NOT PASS!" at them.
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    So despite Middle Earth living in a permanent age of magic and medieval technology, several thousand years, you expect multi-skin colour integration? It's clear everyone was keeping themselves to themselves. Anyway, Haradrim are examples of tribal non-whites, either Arabs or blacks and perhaps the Easterlings are probably oriental. In the trilogy they were considered evil, which I don't blame the whites for doing seeing as they were the aggressors. Maybe the Easterlings are based on the Japanese? Maybe the Haradrim are based on the Arabs that sided with Hitler? Anyway it is clear that in that European medieval style culture it wouldn't have been appropriate to depict a non-white. How about we have a white in the Aboriginal Australian community during the White Australia Policy? That would not be appropriate.

    The Elder Scrolls gets around this by having a multi-racial setting, i.e. Redguards = Arabs, Nords = Northern Europeans, Cyrodiilians = Southern European. Hell you can do absurd things like having a black Nord or a white redguard.

    Maybe we could make a fantasy film based on African tribalism back in the past and whine and complain that there aren't any whites, but I doubt anyone is going to be immature should that scenario arises.
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    I think the thread starter made this video
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    lets face it; one nigerian hobbit would have destroyed the LOTR franchise. It would just turn into a pc gang fest.
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    They probably live in a different part of Middle Earth than what we saw
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    You have too much free time.
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    (Original post by SaintSoldier)
    Sarcasm doesn't translate too well across the internet
    Well, even if so. It is clearly obvious that this is a light hearted question, amusing how many neg reps I am getting over bloody hobbits! :eek:
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    (Original post by Elipsis)
    It was written in 1954, how many black people were in the UK then?
    THIS OP. Stop inferring
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    (Original post by fat_hobbit)
    Middle-earth is not Europe. It's tolkiens world.

    He could have at least included one black , one chinese, and brown hobbit for the sake of political correctness. Even if it meant , that they travelled from 'N africa' to the shire to meet up with other hobbits to discuss the ring and how to defeat sauron.
    Because PC culture wasn't prominent until the 1990s... almost 60 years after the book was written.
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    (Original post by Elipsis)
    Someone has already said that, smart arse . Somehow you're going to have to get your load back into your penis.
    *Steals funnel from chem lab.
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    In the sequel one hobbit has a black child, at first they are confused, could a black character have penetrated the racist barrier?! But then they realise it's obviously the son of God, Jesbbit.
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    This is obviously a loaded/troll question however in the fictional world Hobbits are a signal species who I believe only inhabit an area of middle earth of which the conditions have adapted them to have pale skin.
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    (Original post by fat_hobbit)
    Well, I see black people today in britain, living in non-tropical climates.

    What's the difference?
    At some point they or their parents came from somewhere which actually seen the sun more than 5 times a year. Don't think immigration was a big thing in Middle Earth..
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    Maybe Tolkein just didn't envisage black hobbits in the Shire. It's not like hobbits are human, so it's essentially like saying, "why do we only have grey sharks and not pink ones?"
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    I would say that tolkein has lots of races- hobbits, humans, orks, uruk hai, the 2 elves, easterlings etc. Maybe races all have the same skin colour-ish in middle earth because it doesn't have such a varied climate. or maybe tolkein wanted people like you to waste hours of their day asking other people pointless questions about political correctness and discrimination.

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