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Scotland Yard Racism...

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Reply 200
Original post by marcusfox
Oh, laws now? So, given that at that time, it was whites who essentially ruled the world of slavery, you think that the definition of racism also encompasses a political power?

So you can't be racist towards a race that is politically more powerful than a minority?


Er yes, laws.

What are you talking about? Yes a political ideology can be racist. :confused:

The point I am making is very simple, discrimination towards blacks has been significantly worse than towards most other groups.
Reply 201
Original post by TheGreatReformer
I think it is spelled 'source'.


:dunce: you just earned yourself a cookie young man!
Reply 202
Original post by Bonged.
Sauce please.


Heinz or HP?
Reply 203
Original post by AP1989
The point I am making is very simple, discrimination towards blacks has been significantly worse than towards most other groups.


And the point I am making is that it is wrong to use that 'historical injustice' to try to justify a reason as to why discrimination laws should apply only to anti-black discrimination
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 204
Original post by AP1989
Heinz or HP?


Get your sarcasm detector fixed mate!

And address this point : Have you ever heard of serfdom or feudalism? Most of the British populace used to be slaves.

I will also have the sauce.

PS, hp is owned by heinz. =P
(edited 12 years ago)
Original post by marcusfox
And the point I am making is that it is wrong to use that 'historical injustice' as a reason as to why discrimination laws should apply only to anti-black discrimination


As it is, discrimination laws do not only apply to 'anti-black discrimination'. No discrimination law applies to any specific race anyway. Thus, a gypsy could claim under the relevant act that he/she was discriminated against and so could a Jewish man also under the same relevant act.

There are, however, some specific laws related to disabled persons.
Reply 206
Original post by marcusfox
And the point I am making is that it is wrong to use that 'historical injustice' to try to justify a reason as to why discrimination laws should apply only to anti-black discrimination


When did I say discrimination laws should be in place for only anti-black discrimination? :confused:
Reply 207
Original post by Bonged.
Get your sarcasm detector fixed mate!

And address this point : Have you ever heard of serfdom or feudalism? Most of the British populace used to be slaves.

I will also have the sauce.

PS, hp is owned by heinz. =P


There will obviously be conflicting papers - are you about to read all of them and provide a logical analyse? If you’re that interested go and do some research. Like I said, this is my interpretation of what I understand and have read.

Why is that relevant? Does society think of white people when they hear 'slave'? No, which is ONE of the reasons why the law and civil society focuses heavily on black people in terms of discrimination.
Reply 208
Original post by TheGreatReformer
As it is, discrimination laws do not only apply to 'anti-black discrimination'. No discrimination law applies to any specific race anyway. Thus, a gypsy could claim under the relevant act that he/she was discriminated against and so could a Jewish man also under the same relevant act.

There are, however, some specific laws related to disabled persons.


Er, I think he knows this...
Reply 209
Original post by AP1989
There will obviously be conflicting papers - are you about to read all of them and provide a logical analyse? If you’re that interested go and do some research. Like I said, this is my interpretation of what I understand and have read.

Why is that relevant? Does society think of white people when they hear 'slave'? No, which is ONE of the reasons why the law and civil society focuses heavily on black people in terms of discrimination.


Lol ok I'll take it you read the guardian. Learning history never hurts. Check out serfdom.

I think of a slave. Being educated in history I am aware that slavery has been around throughout recorded history, that it has been used against various groups, not just sub-saharan africans.

East europeans used to be very popular amongst Ottoman sultans, you know, "slavs".

If people think black when they hear slave, that's their problem. Not mine.
Original post by neverlander¾
"you will always be a n****r"?
Tell that to Michael Jackson.


Lol. That's quite funny.
Reply 211
Original post by AP1989
When did I say discrimination laws should be in place for only anti-black discrimination? :confused:


When you said it you shouldn't apply discrimination laws to other groups because blacks have been the most discriminated against in history.

And then you brought up slavery to justify it.

Have any of those groups faced the discrimination that black people have throughout history? Were any of those groups ever made into slaves? Were any of them repressed via discriminatory laws?
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 212
Original post by marcusfox
When you said it you shouldn't apply discrimination laws to other groups because blacks have been the most discriminated against in history.

And then you brought up slavery to justify it.


That's clearly not what I said.

I was emphasising my point which I've grown tired of repeating - the reason why there is more focus on anti-black discrimination.
Reply 213
Original post by AP1989
That's clearly not what I said.

I was emphasising my point which I've grown tired of repeating - the reason why there is more focus on anti-black discrimination.


What you said was:

Have any of those groups faced the discrimination that black people have throughout history? Were any of those groups ever made into slaves? Were any of them repressed via discriminatory laws?


So in the context of my original post that you replied to, that means you are trying to justify the exclusion of all discrimination except that against black people. Because apparently no other group of people have been oppressed as much as black people have.

You might well say that whites have repressed other races with discriminatory laws. But I can equally say back to you that other races have repressed whites with discriminatory laws.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 214
The CPS tried to get the case dropped, it is due to the reaction of public that anything is being done about it. Look at the Muamba case, they made Liam Stacey a scapegoat. He did the same thing as the police officer, but look at the difference in how the courts reacted. It sends out a clear message that the police are above the law and can abuse whomever they please. Also, it's likely that police officers will just take the phones of those they stop to prevent their actions from getting caught. However, this isn't just a race issue anymore, justice has become an illusion. The system is corrupt.
(edited 12 years ago)
Reply 215
Original post by marcusfox
On Stacey, Senior CPS lawyer, Jim Brisbane says:

"Racist language is inappropriate in any setting and through any media. We hope this case will serve as a warning to anyone who thinks that comments made online are somehow above the law"


The thing is 1) they have a hard time policing the internet so will do anything to make examples of people to attempt to scare people into submission. If they prosecuted every single person who was racist on the internet they would have to convert the whole country into a giant prison. 2) As idealistic as such "noone is above the law" comments are, the fact of the matter is your wealth or what organization you are part of plays a factor in what you get away with. As another person said convicting those police officers would uncover all the racism that is still in the system. Plus the police and CPS would fall out causing problems in the legal system if they are not cooperating with each other, hence why the CPS is always so soft on them.
Reply 216
Original post by marcusfox
What you said was:



So that means you are trying to justify the exclusion of all discrimination except that against black people. Because apparently no other group of people have been oppressed as much as black people have.

You might well say that whites have repressed other races with discriminatory laws. But I can equally say back to you that other races have repressed whites with discriminatory laws.


I think I am in a better position to explain what I meant.

I was explaining why, for the last time, discrimination against blacks is significantly worse than discrimination against other minorities. Other groups have been made into slaves and suffered from discriminatory laws, but not on the same scale as that of black people. Perhaps I should've said 'on the same scale', but I figured that much was obvious.
Reply 217
Original post by najinaji
They aren't, but I wouldn't treat someone who burns down, smashes up and robs shops with any respect at all, and I don't see why I should. Race shouldn't have really entered into things (though one must bear in mind that a disproportionate number of black teenagers were involved), but if he'd called the looter a 'scumbag' or something like that, it wouldn't bother me in the slightest.


a) whatever his crime the police should be acting professionally and not acting like thugs. b) by using racist slurs they are indirectly saying that people rioted just because they are black just like Starkey's "the whites have become black" comments.
**** the police. They're all a bunch of half-brained thugs who (correctly) think they're above the law.
Reply 219
Original post by najinaji
I'd say witnessing someone hurling a brick through a shop window for example is pretty good proof of their guilt. :colonhash:

But let's just say for argument's sake that during the riots, a police officer arrested an innocent bystander. Surely, if you were innocent, you would just comply and wait until you're let go in a couple of hours?


He could of been throwing it in the skip to stop others using it but missed. He could of thrown it at people chasing him trying to kill him and missed. He could of thrown it to smash a window to save someone trapped in the building. This is why we have courts....
(edited 12 years ago)

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