Edit - I now understand this, but in practice how does it work?
If the trustee, in breach of trust, misapplies a a trust property painting worth £10,000 at the date of breach, then there is a stock market collapse three years later meaning people aren't spending money. By the time the beneficiaries discover the breach of trust and the case arrives for judgment, the painting is only now worth £2,000.
Would the courts really assess equitable compensation at the date of judgment (£2,000) or would there clearly be no causal link between the breach of trust and the loss, as required under Target?
Is Target basically telling us
(i) prove that the breach caused the loss (but for the trustee's breach, the loss would not have occurred)
(ii) if you prove the causal connection, equitable compensation is determined at date of judgment
?