Greatest common divisor of two polynomials question
Maths and statistics discussion, revision, exam and homework help.
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Greatest common divisor of two polynomials question
A part on wikipedia doesn't make sense to me;
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Greates...wo_polynomials
Let
and
be non-zero polynomials, with coefficients in a field
. A greatest common divisor of
and
is a polynomial
that is a divisor of
and of
.
Note: If
is another polynomial, then it too is a greatest common divisor of
and
if and only if
is equal to
multiplied by an element of
.
I don't understand how this last statement (the 'note') can be true. For example take (the field F is the real numbers);

and

In this case
. From the last statement does it not say that
is also a greatest common divisor? It's clearly not though.
That source was from wikipedia, my lecture notes say it in a different way;
Also if
is another polynomial that divides
and
then
divides
. Write
. This polynomial is defined only up to a non-zero scalar multiple so, if we want a unique gcd, then we insist
be monic (the co-efficient of the highest power of
is 1).
I don't get how make the co-efficient of the highest power makes the gcd unique. Surely, by the conditions imposed on the gcd, the gcd would always be unique anyway regardless of th co-efficient in front of the highest power?Last edited by Sasukekun; 19-04-2012 at 13:15. -
Re: Greatest common divisor of two polynomials questionUsing the example you've given:(Original post by Sasukekun)
...
d(x) = ax, where a is any non-zero real.
I.e.
are all gcd's of your two functions.
But there is only one monic gcd, and that is "x". -
Re: Greatest common divisor of two polynomials question
It's because 2 is a unit in the field of real numbers. The gcd is not unique when you're talking about the integers: is the gcd of 6 and 15 equal to 3 or -3? It doesn't really matter. if d and d' are two greatest common divisors (over an integral domain) then we obtain d | d' and d' | d. So if d = d'a and d' = db then ab = 1, so a and b are units, meaning d and d' are associates.
Last edited by Glutamic Acid; 19-04-2012 at 13:49. -
Re: Greatest common divisor of two polynomials question(Original post by ghostwalker)
Using the example you've given:
d(x) = ax, where a is any non-zero real.
I.e.
are all gcd's of your two functions.
But there is only one monic gcd, and that is "x".(Original post by Glutamic Acid)
It's because 2 is a unit in the field of real numbers. The gcd is not unique when you're talking about the integers: is the gcd of 6 and 15 equal to 3 or -3? It doesn't really matter. if d and d' are two greatest common divisors (over an integral domain) then we obtain d | d' and d' | d. So if d = d'a and d' = db then ab = 1, so a and b are units, meaning d and d' are associates.
Thanks for the replies. I've understood what you guys have said but apologies as I am slow at understanding this. So in my example the field was the real numbers. When we define gcd, in this case, it does not matter that the GCD does not divide the numbers evenly? Ghostwalker, you for example said
is a GCD of those two functions.
But
and

Is
a GCD because the polynomial left behind still has a co-efficient in the real numbers (i.e.
?
Last edited by Sasukekun; 19-04-2012 at 17:25. -
Re: Greatest common divisor of two polynomials questionThe set of integers forms a ring, not a field; and in a general ring, gcds needn't exist.(Original post by Sasukekun)
Thanks for the replies. I've understood what you guys have said but apologies as I am slow at understanding this. So in my example the field was the real numbers. When we define gcd, in this case, it does not matter that the GCD does not divide the numbers evenly? Ghostwalker, you for example said
is a GCD of those two functions.
But
and

If the field was the integers, this would not work because when taking a factor of
out it does leave behind a polynomial that has an integer co-efficient. Right?
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Re: Greatest common divisor of two polynomials questionYes. 1/pi is just a scalar, and it's valid as you're working over R.(Original post by Sasukekun)
Is
a GCD because the polynomial left behind still has a co-efficient in the real numbers (i.e.
?
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Re: Greatest common divisor of two polynomials question
Because any two GCDs divide each other, the GCD is unique up to multiplication by a constant - so to make thing simpler we can just define "the GCD" to be the monic GCD (which is unique). Just like with integers it's unique up to sign - so we can just define "the GCD" to be the positive one.