Can someone please clarify for me this issue:
Do charities established for the advancement of religion and education have to satisfy the public benefit element after the enactment of 2006 Act.
If they do have to benefit the public, does anyone know the test (and the case in which that test was defined)?
If you haven't already done so, look at the recent Independent Schools Council case, and the February 2012 judgment on the Attorney-General's reference re poverty charities. While neither deals squarely with advancement of religion the reasoning will be helpful in thinking through your question.
I did read it.. But I still dont get it. Someone please help
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