[beepbeeprichie]

Say the UK government invaded a country and it became 'ours'. What type of ownership would the government/crown have? Would it only became freehold once they sold it? Is there any precedent/legislation here?

[nulli tertius]

(Original post by beepbeeprichie)
Say the UK government invaded a country and it became 'ours'. What type of ownership would the government/crown have? Would it only became freehold once they sold it? Is there any precedent/legislation here?

Yes there is a precedent. It is called the British Empire. We used to do an awful lot of this.

Look up the law on the difference between a settled and a ceded colony.

Essentially, in the case of a ceded colony i.e. conquered territory, we take the existing law as we find it. In a settled colony, English law at the date of settlement is exported.

Hence, there is freehold land in Ontario but not in Quebec.