[ScienceGeek3]

Solved

[fudgesundae]

(Original post by ScienceGeek3)
I would really appreciate some help on this question. I am aware of the method used to solve the equation, however I seem to be getting a different answer to the mark scheme. Right so what I did, I raised each side to the power of e, to remove the ln and so was left with 2x-3= e^1 and then and simple took the 3 across and divided both sides by 2. However the mark scheme has e by itself as opposed to e^1. I was always under the impression that you raise both sides to a power so surely you would get e to the power of 1

Thanks!

e^1 is e. Anything to the power of 1 is just itself.

[ScienceGeek3]

(Original post by fudgesundae)
e^1 is e. Anything to the power of 1 is just itself.

Haha, I'm such a fool. Exam stress is getting to me