Summation of trigonometric identities
Maths and statistics discussion, revision, exam and homework help.
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Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiese^0=1(Original post by johnconnor92)
Prove that
Attempt:

But the powers of the exp don't match the target of which I'm supposed to prove. Pointers anyone? -
Re: Summation of trigonometric identities
Don't they? I've not looked too closely but I think you may have forgotten that e^(ix) = cosx + isinx, so you've summed cos(kx) + i sin(kx), so you ought to be taking just the imaginary part of that sum you've got, that will probably mess about with it suitably well as to make it look similar.
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Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiesI do know about that, but if we look at the powers of the natural constant how are we supposed to get a half out of the terms? I didn't go on because I hesitated on seeing the powers.(Original post by Allofthem)
Don't they? I've not looked too closely but I think you may have forgotten that e^(ix) = cosx + isinx, so you've summed cos(kx) + i sin(kx), so you ought to be taking just the imaginary part of that sum you've got, that will probably mess about with it suitably well as to make it look similar.
I know about this method. Tried it and done it, too. But I just want to nail the question with the method here. -
Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiesAs you probably know, You want to take the imaginary part of this, which means you need to make the denominator easier to deal with.(Original post by johnconnor92)
= \dfrac{(1 - e^{i((n+1)\theta)})}{1- e^{i(\theta)}}
The normal way of doing this would be to multiply top and bottom by
, which makes the denominator real.
A better method here is to multiply top and bottom by
, which leaves the denominator as
, which is pure imaginary. It should work out fairly easily from there.
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Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiesOF COURSE! I got the complex conjugate for exponentials wrong! OMGWTFBBQ(Original post by DFranklin)
As you probably know, You want to take the imaginary part of this, which means you need to make the denominator easier to deal with.
The normal way of doing this would be to multiply top and bottom by
, which makes the denominator real.
A better method here is to multiply top and bottom by
, which leaves the denominator as
, which is pure imaginary. It should work out fairly easily from there.
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Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiesNote what I said about the "better" method here (which doesn't use the complex conjugate). It's a trick worth knowing.(Original post by johnconnor92)
OF COURSE! I got the complex conjugate for exponentials wrong! OMGWTFBBQ -
Re: Summation of trigonometric identities(Original post by DFranklin)
As you probably know, You want to take the imaginary part of this, which means you need to make the denominator easier to deal with. The normal way of doing this would be to multiply top and bottom by
, which makes the denominator real.

Hmm... Something went wrong.
![\dfrac{(1 - e^{i((n+1)\theta)})(e^{-i\theta/2})}{(1- e^{i(\theta)})(e^{-i\theta/2})}
= \dfrac{e^{-i\theta/2} - e^{i[(n+1)-1/2]\theta}}{e^{-i\theta/2} - e^{i\theta/2}}
= \dfrac{\cos(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) - \cos(n+1/2)\theta +\sin(n+1/2)\theta)}{cos(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) -\cos(\theta/2)}
\text{taking the imaginary parts,}
= \dfrac{-\sin(\theta/2)+\sin(n+1/2)\theta}{-2\sin(\theta/2)} \dfrac{(1 - e^{i((n+1)\theta)})(e^{-i\theta/2})}{(1- e^{i(\theta)})(e^{-i\theta/2})}
= \dfrac{e^{-i\theta/2} - e^{i[(n+1)-1/2]\theta}}{e^{-i\theta/2} - e^{i\theta/2}}
= \dfrac{\cos(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) - \cos(n+1/2)\theta +\sin(n+1/2)\theta)}{cos(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) -\cos(\theta/2)}
\text{taking the imaginary parts,}
= \dfrac{-\sin(\theta/2)+\sin(n+1/2)\theta}{-2\sin(\theta/2)}](http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/latexrender/pictures/82/824413e04b8382f1f9fa99052fcb0239.png)
This is amazing! I always thought denominators with an imaginary numbers cannot be navigated like that of real numbers. But what went wrong in the above calculation? Thank you so much!Last edited by johnconnor92; 09-06-2012 at 04:05. -
Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiesI proved the summation via the complex conjugate method. Here's another attempt at the pointer you gave me:(Original post by DFranklin)
Note what I said about the "better" method here (which doesn't use the complex conjugate). It's a trick worth knowing.
![\dfrac{(1 - e^{i((n+1)\theta)})(e^{-i\theta/2})}{(1- e^{i(\theta)})(e^{-i\theta/2})}
= \dfrac{e^{-i\theta/2} - e^{i[(n+1)-1/2]\theta}}{e^{-i\theta/2} - e^{i\theta/2}}
= \dfrac{\cos(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) - \cos(n+1/2)\theta -\sin(n+1/2)\theta)}{cos(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) -\cos(\theta/2)} \dfrac{(1 - e^{i((n+1)\theta)})(e^{-i\theta/2})}{(1- e^{i(\theta)})(e^{-i\theta/2})}
= \dfrac{e^{-i\theta/2} - e^{i[(n+1)-1/2]\theta}}{e^{-i\theta/2} - e^{i\theta/2}}
= \dfrac{\cos(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) - \cos(n+1/2)\theta -\sin(n+1/2)\theta)}{cos(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) - i\sin(\theta/2) -\cos(\theta/2)}](http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/latexrender/pictures/65/65372a886e31d93860aa2d60522e4d02.png)
I don't think I made any mistakes with the working above (god forbid), but what I really don't know is whether I should be taking the real/imaginary part of the expression. The real part give the answer at the numerator, but what about the denominator?

Please help. Thank you! -
Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiesWhat? So after the multiplication of the e^(-i theta/2) factor i STILL have to multiply another i factor into the expression? Where can I learn more about this? Thank you!(Original post by DFranklin)
You need to take the imaginary part of the whole expression. (You can multiply top and bottom by i to make the denominator real).
On a side note, how does a fraction with an imaginary denominator differ from that of a real denominator? Are there any significant changes in its behaviour when the numerator/denominator changes by 1 or 2? -
Re: Summation of trigonometric identities(Original post by DFranklin)
You need to take the imaginary part of the whole expression. (You can multiply top and bottom by i to make the denominator real).Anyone? Thanks in advance.(Original post by johnconnor92)
What? So after the multiplication of the e^(-i theta/2) factor i STILL have to multiply another i factor into the expression? Where can I learn more about this? Thank you!
On a side note, how does a fraction with an imaginary denominator differ from that of a real denominator? Are there any significant changes in its behaviour when the numerator/denominator changes by 1 or 2? -
Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiesHm? Rationalizing the denominator doesn't change the number, it's just that you cannot identify the real/imaginary part before you rationalize the denominator.(Original post by johnconnor92)
On a side note, how does a fraction with an imaginary denominator differ from that of a real denominator? Are there any significant changes in its behaviour when the numerator/denominator changes by 1 or 2?
For example, take the complex number z:

Rather:

As always, sorry if I misunderstood your question. -
Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiesThat's exactly what I was confused about! DFranklin asked a factor of e^{i theta/2), and doing so produces a pure imaginary denominator which, surprisingly, gives the required answer in imaginary form. But why?(Original post by aznkid66)
Hm? Rationalizing the denominator doesn't change the number, it's just that you cannot identify the real/imaginary part before you rationalize the denominator.
For example, take the complex number z:

Rather:

As always, sorry if I misunderstood your question. -
Re: Summation of trigonometric identitiesI'm really not sure what your problem is, which is why I haven't responded..(Original post by johnconnor92)
That's exactly what I was confused about! DFranklin asked a factor of e^{i theta/2), and doing so produces a pure imaginary denominator which, surprisingly, gives the required answer in imaginary form. But why?
If we want to find the imaginary part of
, we can multiply top and buttom by i:
and then read off the imaginary part (a/-d) = -a/d.
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Oh so now i see your trick you hinted. This is amazing! Thank you so very much for teaching me this!(Original post by DFranklin)
I'm really not sure what your problem is, which is why I haven't responded..
If we want to find the imaginary part of
, we can multiply top and buttom by i:
and then read off the imaginary part (a/-d) = -a/d.

