[Tedfoo25]

(Original post by Jam')
y=2f(x) -> stretch in the y-axis, scale factor 2, so yes, you multiply by 2.

y=f(x)+2 -> translation by 1 unit in the positive y-direction.

I think you mean 2 units for the last one.

[Jam']

(Original post by Tedfoo25)
I think you mean 2 units for the last one.

HA yeah lol thanks

[Jack0234]

(Original post by Alasda1r)
The way I did the proof was to say, if s(x) is odd the -s(x)= s(-x)
So,
-s(x)= -(f(x) + g(x))
= -f(x) + - g(x)
Since f(x) and g(x) are odd ( as you are told in the question)
= f(-x) + g(-x)
= s(-x)
Hence odd

The proof was standard I thought, basically, if s(x) =f(x) + g(x)

It tells you both f(x) and g(x) are odd, so
s(-x) = f(-x) + g(-x)
= -f(x) - g(x)
= - (f(x) + g(x)) = -s(x) so it's odd

next part was f(x) * g(x) well two negative times together to get a positive, so it's positive and hence even.

[sophie_94]

(Original post by hprmc)
hhaha... how did you get your 1.5 ? cos i actually got -1.5 haha. im scared ive lost all the marks for the question
I got -1.5 by integrating tangent, then integrating the original graph, then taking the area of the graph away from the tangent.

Ah yeah sorry -1.5 because then when you taken them away you actually add, sorry I missed that slight detail there haha x

[prada1234]

(Original post by SS*)
What question was this? I have the paper.

Do you still have the june 2012 paper?