(Original post by ackbar)
This is the first time I have heard of the infinite regression argument and find it fascinating. I think I may finally be beginning to understand it, but need a little help to refine my thought exercise.
A) Infinite Regression can not exist
By your own argument we have established this.
B) God(s) is eternal, infinite, has always existed and will always exist.
If A is true than logically B is also true.
C) The universe was created at some point and is finite with a beginning and an end.
Again a statement built on your infinite regression argument.
D) God(s) Created the universe
If A,B, and C are true than logically D is true.
E) There was a time before God(s) created the universe.
Again logically if the universe was created, there was a time when the universe did not exist correct?
F) God(s) waited an infinite amount of time before creating the universe.
Uh Oh I see an infinite regression argument on the horizon here
G) From F, there was an infinite period before the creation of the universe
H) From G, the universe can never be created because there is infinite time before it's creation
I) We are here, the universe exists.
Unless of course God(s) is finite and has his own first cause stretching back into infinity .... but as statement A is true this cannot be true.
So either God(s) gets special dispensation to be outside of your logical argument, or we accept there has always been a god(s), in which case why is it not possible to assume there has always been a universe?
I'm sure some of the readers of this thread will help me refine this argument but as far as I can see, the infinite regression paradox cannot be used to prove the existence of a god(s) any more than it can be used to disprove the existence of a god(s)
Jesus promised to get rid of all the wicked people.
Odin promised to get rid of all the ice giants.
I don't see any Ice giants