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The Proof is Trivial!

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Original post by Indeterminate
That's the solution I was looking for :biggrin:

The complex analysis route is really quite messy in this case.


I thought so, i dont do any complex analysis as of yet as I am not at Uni yet! But the square at the bottom and the limts made me think of that sub.


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Problem 551
A,B are fixed points on a circle, not diametrically opposite each other.P is a variable point of the circle and Q is the point diametrically opposite P. Find the Locus of the point of intersection of AP and BQ.

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(edited 8 years ago)
Original post by physicsmaths


I am new to this but I had a quick question: Why is it possible to add the two integrals when the first one has the 'dx' operator and the second has the 'du' operator on it ?
Original post by -Gifted-
I am new to this but I had a quick question: Why is it possible to add the two integrals when the first one has the 'dx' operator and the second has the 'du' operator on it ?


f(x) dx = f(u) du = f(t) dt = f(k) dk etc
as the limits are the same they represent the same number
Original post by -Gifted-
I am new to this but I had a quick question: Why is it possible to add the two integrals when the first one has the 'dx' operator and the second has the 'du' operator on it ?


Such things known as dummy variables in calculus. As TeeEm has phrased.
You can see some as transformations aswell ie x->-x etc


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Original post by TeeEm
f(x) dx = f(u) du = f(t) dt = f(k) dk etc
as the limits are the same they represent the same number


Thanks, makes sense now :smile:
Original post by physicsmaths
Problem 551
A,B are fixed points on a circle, not diametrically opposite each other.P is a variable point of the circle and Q is the point diametrically opposite P. Find the Locus of the point of intersection of AP and BQ.

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Solution 551

The locus is a circle through A and B centered on the intersection of the tangents to the original circle at A and B.
There are two cases to consider, but I'll write a short argument, the details can be added.
Let the point of intersection of AP and BQ be T.
We know that as Q varies, the angle AQB stays constant.
We also know that the angle QAP, and thus QAT are right angles, as QAP lies in a semicircle.
Thus in the triangle QAT, the remaining angle QTA is constant, thus BTA is constant and the locus is a circle.

Now let the the intersection of the tangents to the original circle through A and B meet at S and let O be the center of the original circle.
ASB = 180 - AOB = 180 - 2AQB = 2(90 - AQB) and let T lie outside the original circle (if it doesn't in your sketch, swap the positions of P and Q), so ATB = 90 - AQB (considering the triangle AQT), this and symmetry implies that S is the center of the locus circle.
(I haven't done this last part in a particularly beautiful way, but notice that it implies that if we used the locus circle as the generating circle, keeping A and B constant, the locus generated will be the original circle, and notice also that the two circles intersect each other at right angles.)
(edited 8 years ago)
Problem 552***

Let α,β[0,π] \alpha, \beta \in [0,\pi] and k>0k > 0

By considering the Maclaurin series of ln(1z)\ln(1-z), or otherwise, show that

k=1xkcos(kα)k=12ln(x22xcos(α)+1)\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{x^k \cos(k\alpha)}{k} = -\dfrac{1}{2} \ln \left(x^2 - 2x \cos(\alpha) + 1\right)

for x<1|x| < 1

Show that

01xln(x2+2kxcosβ+k2x2+2kxcosα+k2) dx=α2β2\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty}\dfrac{1}{x} \ln \left(\dfrac{x^2 + 2kx \cos \beta + k^2}{x^2 + 2kx \cos \alpha + k^2}\right) \ dx = \alpha^2 - \beta^2
(edited 8 years ago)
Original post by Indeterminate
Problem 552***

Let α,β[0,π] \alpha, \beta \in [0,\pi] and k>0k > 0

By considering the Maclaurin series of ln(1z)\ln(1-z), or otherwise, show that

k=1xkcos(kα)k=12ln(x22xcos(α)+1)\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{x^k \cos(k\alpha)}{k} = -\dfrac{1}{2} \ln \left(x^2 - 2x \cos(\alpha) + 1\right)

for x<1|x| < 1

Show that

0ln(x2+2kxcosβ+k2x2+2kxcosα+k2) dx=α2β2\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \ln \left(\dfrac{x^2 + 2kx \cos \beta + k^2}{x^2 + 2kx \cos \alpha + k^2}\right) \ dx = \alpha^2 - \beta^2


What level of mathematics is required for this?
Original post by EricPiphany
Solution 551

The locus is a circle through A and B centered on the intersection of the tangents to the original circle at A and B.
There are two cases to consider, but I'll write a short argument, the details can be added.
Let the point of intersection of AP and BQ be T.
We know that as Q varies, the angle AQB stays constant.
We also know that the angle QAP, and thus QAT are right angles, as QAP lies in a semicircle.
Thus in the triangle QAT, the remaining angle QTA is constant, thus BTA is constant and the locus is a circle.

Now let the the intersection of the tangents to the original circle through A and B meet at S and let O be the center of the original circle.
ASB = 180 - AOB = 180 - 2AQB = 2(90 - AQB) and let T lie outside the original circle (if it doesn't in your sketch, swap the positions of P and Q), so ATB = 90 - AQB (considering the triangle AQT), this and symmetry implies that S is the center of the locus circle.
(I haven't done this last part in a particularly beautiful way, but notice that it implies that if we used the locus circle as the generating circle, keeping A and B constant, the locus generated will be the original circle, and notice also that the two circles intersect each other at right angles.)


Sorry, completely missed this, I will try find my solution tonight, If not I will write it out. It was a beautfiul problem.


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Original post by qwertzuiop
What level of mathematics is required for this?


I'd say undergrad

The connoisseurs amongst the A-level students could do it, though :smile:
Original post by Indeterminate
Problem 552***

Let α,β[0,π] \alpha, \beta \in [0,\pi] and k>0k > 0

By considering the Maclaurin series of ln(1z)\ln(1-z), or otherwise, show that

k=1xkcos(kα)k=12ln(x22xcos(α)+1)\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \dfrac{x^k \cos(k\alpha)}{k} = -\dfrac{1}{2} \ln \left(x^2 - 2x \cos(\alpha) + 1\right)

for x<1|x| < 1

Show that

0ln(x2+2kxcosβ+k2x2+2kxcosα+k2) dx=α2β2\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\infty} \ln \left(\dfrac{x^2 + 2kx \cos \beta + k^2}{x^2 + 2kx \cos \alpha + k^2}\right) \ dx = \alpha^2 - \beta^2


I'm confused about the integral in the second part, because in the first part you prove a formula for |x| < 1, but the integral ranges from 0 to infinity. Also, when I substitute x = ku, the result seems to imply that the integral is not independent on the value of k.
Original post by EricPiphany
I'm confused about the integral in the second part, because in the first part you prove a formula for |x| < 1, but the integral ranges from 0 to infinity. Also, when I substitute x = ku, the result seems to imply that the integral is not independent on the value of k.


Hint:

After substituting u=x/ku=x/k, you can split the integral into 2: the first over (0,1)(0,1) and the second over (1,)(1,\infty)

If you can find away around the latter, then the result will be applicable :smile:
Reply 3473
Problem 553 (*)

Here's a nice, easy to start with problem :smile:

Let a1,a2,...a_{1}, a_{2},... be a sequence of positive integers such that every (positive) integer appears in the sequence only once. Suppose further that n n divides Sn=a1+...+an S_{n} = a_{1} + ... + a_{n} . Show that such a sequence exist.
Original post by Blazy
Problem 553 (*)

Here's a nice, easy to start with problem :smile:

Let a1,a2,...a_{1}, a_{2},... be a sequence of positive integers such that every (positive) integer appears in the sequence only once. Suppose further that n n divides Sn=a1+...+an S_{n} = a_{1} + ... + a_{n} . Show that such a sequence exist.

Solution 553

We construct a sequence that works. Start with a1=1 a_1=1 then let a2 a_2 be some large number such that we may have a3=2 a_3=2 , i.e a23(mod6) a_2 \equiv 3 \pmod{6} . Now let a4 a_4 be some even larger number compared to a2 a_2 such that we may have a5=3 a_5=3 , and such a number exists by CRT. Hence, we keep repeating this, alternating the sequence between large number and the sequence {1,2,3...} \{ 1,2,3... \} , missing out a part of the sequence if that number has already been used as one of our large numbers, and hence, we have constructed a sequence that works.
(edited 8 years ago)
Original post by Renzhi10122
Solution 553

We construct a sequence that works. Start with a1=1 a_1=1 then let a2 a_2 be some large number such that we may have a3=2 a_3=2 , i.e a25(mod6) a_2 \equiv 5 \pmod{6} . Now let a4 a_4 be some even large number compared to a2 a_2 such that we may have a5=3 a_5=3 , and such a number exists by CRT. Hence, we keep repeating this, alternating the sequence between large number and the sequence {1,2,3...} \{ 1,2,3... \} , missing out a part of the sequence if that number has already been used as one of our large numbers, and hence, we have constructed a sequence that works.


I have never studied the Chinese remainder theorem so this question may be stupid, but I'm trying to understand your construction.
I understand that a2n1=na_{2n-1}=n so a1=1,a2=k>1a_{1}=1, a_{2}=k>1 but then a2k1=k=a2a_{2k-1}=k=a_{2} so kk appears twice in the sequence.
Original post by EricPiphany
I have never studied the Chinese remainder theorem so this question may be stupid, but I'm trying to understand your construction.
I understand that a2n1=na_{2n-1}=n so a1=1,a2=k>1a_{1}=1, a_{2}=k>1 but then a2k1=k=a2a_{2k-1}=k=a_{2} so kk appears twice in the sequence.


Would that not be missed out though, I think that is what is happening.


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Original post by EricPiphany
I have never studied the Chinese remainder theorem so this question may be stupid, but I'm trying to understand your construction.
I understand that a2n1=na_{2n-1}=n so a1=1,a2=k>1a_{1}=1, a_{2}=k>1 but then a2k1=k=a2a_{2k-1}=k=a_{2} so kk appears twice in the sequence.


I've just used CRT to justify the existence of such a large number with the property I want. We then miss it out in our sequence as physicsmaths said.
Original post by Renzhi10122
I've just used CRT to justify the existence of such a large number with the property I want. We then miss it out in our sequence as physicsmaths said.


OK, I'm still struggling with the construction though. If a1=1,a2=6n1a_1=1, a_2=6n-1 then S2=6n,S3=6n+2S_2=6n, S_3=6n+2 which isn't divisible by 33.
Original post by EricPiphany
OK, I'm still struggling with the construction though. If a1=1,a2=6n1a_1=1, a_2=6n-1 then S2=6n,S3=6n+2S_2=6n, S_3=6n+2 which isn't divisible by 33.


Woops... I meant =3 (mod 6)... sorry, I'll edit that.

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