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It's far easily to forensically prove that a particular man has had (unprotected) sex with someone than the reverse - there will likely be residual semen in the vagina, etc which can be analysed. By contrast, it'd be a lot easier to avoid that sort of forensic evidence if the woman is the perpetrator since you'd be having to get samples from the defendant, which presumably would be fought every step of the way
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A lot of men would be unwilling to admit they'd had sex forced upon them due to the apparent social perception of such
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The line between the bottom end of rape and the top end of sexual assault would become too blurred - for example, what if a woman coerced a man into performing oral sex on her? The reverse would be rape, but should that be too, seeing as there's not necessarily any penetration?
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