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Rape

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Original post by Algorithm69
So its not rape if I stick my penis into a girl who is wet? Despite her saying no? She was aroused after all. How about if the girl orgasms while I'm raping her? Not rape? Your scenario is silly. Just because a man is aroused does not mean he has consented. This is simply biological ignorance, and statistics prove that men are made to penetrate at an alarming rate.


Dude - I think you may have issues...


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Reply 61
Original post by Pittawithcheese
Dude - I think you may have issues...


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Hardly, you just stated men couldnt be raped. He has a valid point.
Reply 62
Original post by Pittawithcheese
Dude - I think you may have issues...


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No, his point was bang on.
The law is clear; men cannot be the victims of rape by women under current UK law.

I'm withdrawing from this discussion now. You folkes enjoy your debate....


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Original post by tomtjl
Okay, I'm going to start by saying 1) This is not a troll. 2) I am in no way justifying rape in this post, I am merely here to discuss this very sensitive issue.

Now my question to you guys and girls is, why do you think rape has such awful effects on the victims? I know that rape is a truly terrible thing, and I am in no way belittling how horrific it must be (I know I would be very scared if I was in that situation).

Let's make 2 assumptions:
1) This is not a violent rape. The victim is not physically harmed in any way other than the sexual act.
2) This rape is not against the victim's sexuality (ie if the victim is a straight male, then he would be raped by a female, not a male).

If we consider these things, then the rape itself boils down to having sex with someone when you don't want to. The sentence in that form, really doesn't do the crime justice. I mean, I'm sure a lot of girls out there have had sex with their boyfriend's when they didn't really want to, just to shut him up or something similar. I know these 2 events are not even comparable, but they both fit this definition of rape.

So my question is, why does rape have such a devastating effect on victims? If it is in fact, just having sex when you don't want to.

Again, this is not a troll. I understand that rape is a real issue and that it would be awful to be raped. If I put myself in the situation of being raped, I know I would be frightened and would feel terrible. But my question is, why?? When I think of a non violent rape in it's simplest form, sex without consent, I see no reason why I should be fearful. All that's happening is that I'm having sex. In today's society we place very little value in sex (in general, obviously not everybody feels that way) as is shown by one night stands by millions everywhere.

So is it simply the lack of control that causes this fear? The fact that this person COULD become violent at any moment? In which case, it's not the sex itself that is having the effect on the person, but the loss of control we have over our personal well being.

Again, this is not a troll and I do understand how truly horrific rape can be. I am not trying to insult anyone or cause harm, so please don't flame me for posting this.

Thanks.


Some females see sex as a very intimate thing, so the very fact that the choice of who they have sex with is taken away from them is a harrowing experience. I think you are asking this question from the view of a male who may not necessarily feel anything after sex.
(edited 10 years ago)
Reply 65
Original post by Pittawithcheese
Dude - I think you may have issues...


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He hit the nail on the head, and rather than replying to his point, you've just engaged in an ad hominem. To add to his point, whether a man or woman wants to be aroused or not, they can be made to achieve such a state manually through stimulation. The fact remains that, since they do not WANT to be in such a position, they are still being raped.

The legal definition SHOULD change, and anyone who thinks otherwise while still touting gender equality is a hypocrite. Anyone who disagrees in general is quite shocking anyway.
Reply 66
Original post by Pittawithcheese

For rape as an offence to be "complete", there must be penetration of the body of another by the penis, without that persons consent. As women do not have penises, they cannot commit rape. Whether a person consented is a point of law - for example, the law says a person cannot consent when they are asleep, or if they are unlawfully detained.

In law that means that the following scenario is technically rape:

2 students are in a room in halls together (at least one is male)
the male locks the door (but the other does not know the door is locked)
Intercourse takes place

The above is a rape in law. Of course nobody would report it as such, but it shows that a lot of situation that might appear "consensual" are not, under the law. The reality in my experience is that a lot of people who have technically been raped are not traumatised (make and female). For my part, I once had a partner who would initiate sex when I was asleep, and although that is technically rape in law I never thought of it as such and actually enjoyed being woken up by him in that way. The reality is that what traumatises one person may not affect another person at all.

I realise you're more qualified than I am, but I refuse to believe the law is that insane. I see where you're coming from about consent being legally invalid if they're unlawfully detained. But I fail to see how simply locking the door counts as unlawful detainment. Surely it depends on why you locked the door? It's perfectly reasonable that someone might double lock their door (so it can't be opened from the inside without a key) and it's reasonable that they might not think to inform their partner. That doesn't mean they intend to detain them, or in any way deprive them of the choice to have sex or not.

Original post by Pittawithcheese
I suppose technically a woman could rape a man, but to do so would require the penis to be erect. For that to happen the male party would need to be aroused, now I am no doctor, but I think an erection would be unlikely in circumstances where the male party did not consent.

Is it common for women to be 'wet' even though they were raped?
Reply 67
Original post by Danz123
He hit the nail on the head, and rather than replying to his point, you've just engaged in an ad hominem. To add to his point, whether a man or woman wants to be aroused or not, they can be made to achieve such a state manually through stimulation. The fact remains that, since they do not WANT to be in such a position, they are still being raped.


To be fair, she didn't say that arousal implies consent. She just said it seems unlikely a man would maintain an erection if he wasn't consenting. She didn't say it's impossible, or that it would be used as evidence he consented in court.
Original post by Pittawithcheese
The law is clear; men cannot be the victims of rape by women under current UK law.

I'm withdrawing from this discussion now. You folkes enjoy your debate....


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THIS!! Why can't people accept this fact? Really irritates me

Prsom lol
Original post by Gjaykay
It's about power. No one likes being told what to do/wear/say, ect.



Disagree with this
(edited 10 years ago)

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