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Rearrange to find sigma

Hi guys, an economics mathematical problem here. Long story short, I get the following equation:

(C1)(1/o)=B(1+r1)C21/o (C_1)^-(1/o) = B(1 + r_1) C_2^-{1/o}

It's supposed to be to the power of -(1 / o), can't seem to show it on Latex for some reason. Anyway, the question asks to isolate o. My working:

(C2/C1)(1/o)=B(1+r1)[br][br]C2/C1=Bo(1+r1)o(C_2 / C_1 )^-(1/o) = B(1 + r_1)[br][br]C_2 / C_1 = B^o (1 + r_1)^o

Then, the solution seems to say that I can eliminate C2C_2 by setting it equal to (1+G)(C1) (1 + G)(C_1)

Which gets me:

(1+G)C1/C1=1+G=Bo(1+r1)o (1+G)C_1 / C_1 = 1 + G = B^o (1+r_1)^o

Now, for the confusing part. Firstly, the lecturer seemed to use the fact that ln(1+x)=x ln(1 + x) = x (testing this in my calculator disproves this for some reason). And secondly, I have no idea what happened to the 1 in the middle side.

G=oln(B)+or1 G = oln(B) + or_1

Any help would be appreciated :smile:
Original post by SecretDuck
It's supposed to be to the power of -(1 / o), can't seem to show it on Latex for some reason. Anyway, the question asks to isolate o. My working:

Firstly: if you want to get the exponent formatted properly on LaTeX, use left and right braces { } instead of brackets ( ). :smile:

C11o=B(1+r1)C21o C_1^{-\frac{1}{o}} = B(1 + r_1) C_2^{-\frac{1}{o}}

(C2C1)1o=B(1+r1)\displaystyle \left(\frac{C_2}{C_1}\right)^{ \frac{1}{o} } = B(1 + r_1)

C2C1=Bo(1+r1)o\dfrac{C_2}{C_1} = B^o (1 + r_1)^o

Then, the solution seems to say that I can eliminate C2C_2 by setting it equal to (1+G)(C1) (1 + G)(C_1)

Which gets me:

(1+G)C1C1=1+G=Bo(1+r1)o \dfrac{(1+G)C_1}{C_1} = 1 + G = B^o (1+r_1)^o

Now, for the confusing part. Firstly, the lecturer seemed to use the fact that ln(1+x)=x \ln(1 + x) = x (testing this in my calculator disproves this for some reason). And secondly, I have no idea what happened to the 1 in the middle side.

Your lecturer uses the approximation that ln(1+x)x\ln (1+x) \sim x for very small values of xx (try it on your calculator). This approximation comes from truncating the Maclaurin series for ln(1+x)=x+O(x2)\ln (1+x) = x + \mathcal{O}(x^2). I'm not an economist and have no understanding of the actual economics happening here but presumably GG and r1r_1 are sufficiently small here for the approximation to be valid.

G=olnB+or1 G = o\ln B + o r_1

Any help would be appreciated :smile:

Your lecturer now takes the equation 1+G=Bo(1+r1)o1 + G = B^o (1+r_1)^o and takes logarithms of both sides to get ln(1+G)=olnB+oln(1+r1)\ln (1+G) = o\ln B + o \ln (1+r_1) and uses the approximation ln(1+x)x\ln (1+x) \sim x for the terms with the logarithms.
(edited 10 years ago)
Reply 2
Original post by Felix Felicis
Firstly: if you want to get the exponent formatted properly on LaTeX, use left and right braces { } instead of brackets ( ). :smile:


Your lecturer uses the approximation that ln(1+x)x\ln (1+x) \sim x for very small values of xx (try it on your calculator). This approximation comes from truncating the Maclaurin series for ln(1+x)=x+O(x2)\ln (1+x) = x + \mathcal{O}(x^2). I'm not an economist and have no understanding of the actual economics happening here but presumably GG and r1r_1 are sufficiently small here for the approximation to be valid.


Your lecturer now takes the equation 1+G=Bo(1+r1)o1 + G = B^o (1+r_1)^o and takes logarithms of both sides to get ln(1+G)=olnB+oln(1+r1)\ln (1+G) = o\ln B + o \ln (1+r_1) and uses the approximation ln(1+x)x\ln (1+x) \sim x for the terms with the logarithms.


Thank you - I understand now :smile:

G and r_1 are the growth rate and interest rate in percentage terms and hence are small, so I can see now why the assumption would be valid in this case.

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