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Original post by Bloxorus
Can someone explain to me what the pre-release means on line 19-20 where it says it doping creates defect sites with a raised energy level. I understand what defect sites are but what does it mean by a raised energy level?

Taken from some question and answers released by the Matthew Arnold School Physics Department (they're based).



I'm not a chemist, so ionic bonding doesn't mean much at all to me, but you will probably be told in the exam which of the atoms/ions is positive and which is negative. Anyway, we know that systems will always tend towards the lowest possible energy state; so the electrons will tend towards bonding with the positive ion.

Now, earlier in this particular question sheet they'd said that Magnesium replaced Lithium ions at random points in the structure, and that the defect sites have a raised energy level. Why do they have a raised energy level? It must be because the attractive force of Magnesium relative to the Lithium is lesser.



So this energy level means that relative to the Lithium, electrons around Magnesium are of a higher energy level. The lower state around magnesium is greater than the lower state around lithium.

Also under that it says that the radiation raises the energy level of the electrons where they become trapped? How/why are they trapped at that energy level? What is stopping them from emitting photons right there instead of needing to be heated?


The radiation gives some electrons the energy to jump up an energy level to the Magnesium's energy level. However, the magnesium energy level is not like the fluorine; it's at a trough. A technical term for this state is metastability. The electrons are at a trough in energy levels, but it is not the lowest point in the entire system. The only way for them to get to the real bottom is to get enough energy to climb up to the fluorine's energy level to be able to tumble back down to the lithium.

An analogy is standing at the edge of a cliff. When stood still on the edge, you are at a metastable energy level. You're at a low state which is stable, but the introduction of energy in the form of me giving you a push quickly pushes you up the potential hill. You're now a hundred metres above the ground; I've given you the energy to climb up that energy hill. Now you're going to fall to the true lowest possible energy state, now you're at the top of the energy hill.

The heating is the man pushing the electrons off the cliff; it's giving them enough energy to climb the energy hill and tumble down towards the lithium energy level, which is the lowest energy level.

I hope I didn't ramble too much. If I'm horribly wrong, somebody tell me.

Here are the resources I used:

http://matthew-arnold.tmp.synergy-learning.com/mod/resource/view.php?id=4436
http://matthew-arnold.tmp.synergy-learning.com/mod/resource/view.php?id=4437
Reply 61
Very hit and miss on this exam. I think I mostly understand flux and current related stuff now, but I'm really stuck on question 13c from jan 2013 (http://www.ocr.org.uk/Images/144799-question-paper-unit-g495-01-field-and-particle-pictures.pdf ). I understand that as the rate of flux linkage decreases the EMF would decrease, but why does the rate of flux linkage actually decrease as the magnet falls through the coil? Any help would be greatly appreciated, kinda stressing out about this.
Think about it. As the magnet initially falls through the coil. It is travelling in a direction where the flux lines passing through the coil increase (Positive rate of change of flux). But once it is past the mid point of the coil, the magnet falls down in a direction where the rate of change of flux is negative, hence you get positive and negative emf induced.

Can you help me with question 12 part c, where you explain why there is no change in force on balance?
Original post by VigneshSB
Think about it. As the magnet initially falls through the coil. It is travelling in a direction where the flux lines passing through the coil increase (Positive rate of change of flux). But once it is past the mid point of the coil, the magnet falls down in a direction where the rate of change of flux is negative, hence you get positive and negative emf induced.

Can you help me with question 12 part c, where you explain why there is no change in force on balance?


Maybe becasue of the sensitivity in the scale is not very high so it cannot pick up the change.
Original post by VigneshSB
Think about it. As the magnet initially falls through the coil. It is travelling in a direction where the flux lines passing through the coil increase (Positive rate of change of flux). But once it is past the mid point of the coil, the magnet falls down in a direction where the rate of change of flux is negative, hence you get positive and negative emf induced.

Can you help me with question 12 part c, where you explain why there is no change in force on balance?


It's because the equation you've used is F=kQq/r^2 right? Well this equation assumes that the charges are point charges, which in the question they are not, so the charge is spread out over each sphere of radius 5mm. This means that the actual separation of the spheres is greater (because it is from one side of one sphere to the other side of the other) which will result in a smaller force and therefore a lower reading, which will round to 0.001N so the balance will not change. :smile:
Reply 65
Good Luck with the exam guys, I'm fairly terrified. I try my best, but it's never usually very successful

Earlier I was using the wrong K value (1.4x10^-23, not 9x10^9) for an entire question -_-
All this revision is turning my brain to complete mush.
Anyone know what the A* grade boundary mark is around? Not that I have a hope in hell of getting it but just wondering
Original post by Expert #7451
Taken from some question and answers released by the Matthew Arnold School Physics Department (they're based).



I'm not a chemist, so ionic bonding doesn't mean much at all to me, but you will probably be told in the exam which of the atoms/ions is positive and which is negative. Anyway, we know that systems will always tend towards the lowest possible energy state; so the electrons will tend towards bonding with the positive ion.

Now, earlier in this particular question sheet they'd said that Magnesium replaced Lithium ions at random points in the structure, and that the defect sites have a raised energy level. Why do they have a raised energy level? It must be because the attractive force of Magnesium relative to the Lithium is lesser.



So this energy level means that relative to the Lithium, electrons around Magnesium are of a higher energy level. The lower state around magnesium is greater than the lower state around lithium.



The radiation gives some electrons the energy to jump up an energy level to the Magnesium's energy level. However, the magnesium energy level is not like the fluorine; it's at a trough. A technical term for this state is metastability. The electrons are at a trough in energy levels, but it is not the lowest point in the entire system. The only way for them to get to the real bottom is to get enough energy to climb up to the fluorine's energy level to be able to tumble back down to the lithium.

An analogy is standing at the edge of a cliff. When stood still on the edge, you are at a metastable energy level. You're at a low state which is stable, but the introduction of energy in the form of me giving you a push quickly pushes you up the potential hill. You're now a hundred metres above the ground; I've given you the energy to climb up that energy hill. Now you're going to fall to the true lowest possible energy state, now you're at the top of the energy hill.

The heating is the man pushing the electrons off the cliff; it's giving them enough energy to climb the energy hill and tumble down towards the lithium energy level, which is the lowest energy level.

I hope I didn't ramble too much. If I'm horribly wrong, somebody tell me.

Here are the resources I used:

http://matthew-arnold.tmp.synergy-learning.com/mod/resource/view.php?id=4436
http://matthew-arnold.tmp.synergy-learning.com/mod/resource/view.php?id=4437


Thanks! This was really helpful!
Jan 2011; Question 10c..

I don't understand what it's asking? Could someone kindly help me out? :frown:
Such a sh!tty course. I have no idea why any physics teacher would choose it.
Original post by DanielCook95
Jan 2011; Question 10c..

I don't understand what it's asking? Could someone kindly help me out? :frown:


It wants you to estimate the density of a gold nucleus. Because density = mass/volume (so density is proportional to volume) the ratio of nuclear volume/atomic volume = density of gold nucleus/density of gold atom. They give you the density of gold and the ratio nuclear radius/atomic radius so from this you can calculate the density of a gold nucleus. You have to cube the radius ratio because volume is proportional to radius cubed. The assumption you have to make is that all of the mass of a gold atom is in the nucleus. Hope this helps :smile:
(edited 9 years ago)
Original post by thefamousfive
It wants you to estimate the density of a gold nucleus. Because density = mass/volume (so density is proportional to volume) the ratio of nuclear radius/atomic radius = density of gold nucleus/density of gold atom. They give you the density of gold and the ratio nuclear radius/atomic radius so from this you can calculate the density of a gold nucleus. The assumption you have to make is that all of the mass of a gold atom is in the nucleus. Hope this helps :smile:


Thank you very much! I think I understand! :biggrin:
Original post by DanielCook95
Thank you very much! I think I understand! :biggrin:


Might want to read my answer again: I made a slight mistake but I've edited it now :smile:
Original post by thefamousfive
Might want to read my answer again: I made a slight mistake but I've edited it now :smile:


Yeah I understand it fully now. Thank you so much! :smile:
Reply 74
Original post by VigneshSB
Think about it. As the magnet initially falls through the coil. It is travelling in a direction where the flux lines passing through the coil increase (Positive rate of change of flux). But once it is past the mid point of the coil, the magnet falls down in a direction where the rate of change of flux is negative, hence you get positive and negative emf induced.

Can you help me with question 12 part c, where you explain why there is no change in force on balance?


Viggy, think about what the force does onto the ball. The reason for a lower reading is that charge moves over the sphere, making the distance between them bigger
Could anyone give me a good definition of cleaving?


Never got taught that at AS :/
Original post by Kezia1322
Could anyone give me a good definition of cleaving?


Never got taught that at AS :/


When you split a molecule by breaking a particular chemical bond, I think
Reply 77
cleaving is splitting the crystal along a natural grain
'split a molecule by breaking a particular chemical bond'

I think that's when referring to biological processes.

Correct me if i'm wrong but cleaving, when talked about in terms of an a-level physics course and crystals, is when you split something down a (natural) plane of weakness. Sort of like if you're cutting glass. In that case you would create a defect by scratching the surface then you split it down the plane where the lattice structure is now weaker.

The definition of cleaving given by a google search makes sense. It is to 'split or sever (something), especially along a natural line or grain.'

It isn't in the context that you want it but expresses essentially the same idea.
(edited 9 years ago)
Reply 79
In the June 2010 past paper, question 2c asks you to choose the best estimate of electric field strength.

http://www.ocr.org.uk/Images/66749-question-paper-unit-g495-field-and-particle-pictures.pdf

Can anyone explain why it is 1*10^6, not 4*10^7? I worked out that E=V/d, so E=195,000/0.005, which equals 4*10^7.
Thanks!

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