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Intergration question ~ Help

So I found this question, and I can't do it, even it seems quite simple.

Intergrate: 1/(cosx+sinx) dx

Showing me the steps how you did it would be awesome, please don't give me just an answer.

Thanks~ :smile:
Original post by Cashmee
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Are there any bounds for the integral?
(edited 9 years ago)
Reply 2
Original post by Khallil
Are there any bounds for the integral?


Nope, just integrate it, so you leave it with a +c on the end.
Original post by Cashmee
Nope, just integrate it, so you leave it with a +c on the end.


I'd recommend a t=tanx2t = \tan \frac{x}{2} substitution if you (or I) can't find a more ingenious method.
Reply 4
Original post by Cashmee
So I found this question, and I can't do it, even it seems quite simple.

Intergrate: 1/(cosx+sinx) dx

Showing me the steps how you did it would be awesome, please don't give me just an answer.

Thanks~ :smile:

Write the denominator in the form Rsin(x+α)\displaystyle R\sin\left(x+\alpha\right ) then use a result that should be in your formula booklet.
Reply 5
Original post by notnek
Write the denominator in the form Rsin(x+α)\displaystyle R\sin\left(x+\alpha\right ) then use a result that should be in your formula booklet.


Hmm..ok I got.

sinx+cosx = Rsin(x+a)
sinx+cosx = Rsinxcosa + Rcosxsina

1= Rcosa
1= Rsina

Or 1=tana

What do I do now?
Reply 6
Original post by Khallil
I'd recommend a t=tanx2t = \tan \frac{x}{2} substitution if you (or I) can't find a more ingenious method.


Hmm..I don't think we been taught that method in C4.
Also I don't do further maths, so some integration techniques I do not know in FP1, FP2 and FP3.
Original post by Cashmee
...


I see. You can maybe try it in your spare time to get a grips with the sub. It's called the Weierstrass substitution and is used to manipulate rational functions of sines and cosines into forms that come in handy for a whole host of things (including integrals).

For your working out in the post above, I'd suggest finding RR in addition to α\alpha.

Unparseable latex formula:

\begin{aligned} \left \begin{matrix} R\cos \alpha = 1 \\ R \sin \alpha = 1 \end{matrix} \ \right\} \implies R^2 = 2 \ \ \& \ \ \alpha = \arctan (1) \end{aligned}



Remember that the arctangent function yields the principle value of α\alpha which is π<απ-\pi < \alpha \leq \pi.
(edited 9 years ago)

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