The Student Room Group

House of Lords

Can the house of Lords still delay general elections since the introduction of fixed term parliaments in 2011?

My textbook says that it can but i'm thinking it might be outdated
Reply 1
I am aware that the ability to call an election rests solely with the monarch or the Prime Minister through the Royal Prerogative powers. However with the introduction of the FTP Act 2011 it limits this power to only being able to call an election when certain criteria are met, such as a minority government being unable to function or as a result of a vote of no confidence.

The House of Lords does possess a veto on legislation however this can be overruled very simply by the Commons, so I'd say the textbook is a lie.
the Lords can, however, delay legislation for 1 year
Original post by Jacob-C
I am aware that the ability to call an election rests solely with the monarch or the Prime Minister through the Royal Prerogative powers. However with the introduction of the FTP Act 2011 it limits this power to only being able to call an election when certain criteria are met, such as a minority government being unable to function or as a result of a vote of no confidence.

The House of Lords does possess a veto on legislation however this can be overruled very simply by the Commons, so I'd say the textbook is a lie.


The Lords can, however, delay legislation for 1 year - they did something like that in 2006 with ID cards, citing Labour's lack of a mandate.
Reply 4
The HOL can only delay legislation by the parliamentary act of 1929. By the Salisbury convention they are limited in terms of vetoing the 'current' governments manifesto. The HOL cannot call/stop/hinder general elections as they lack legitimation and therefore have no official power to do this! Anyone got anything on the civil service? And have you all looked at the west Lothian question? It was a past paper question!!
Original post by JNC198
The HOL can only delay legislation by the parliamentary act of 1929. By the Salisbury convention they are limited in terms of vetoing the 'current' governments manifesto. The HOL cannot call/stop/hinder general elections as they lack legitimation and therefore have no official power to do this! Anyone got anything on the civil service? And have you all looked at the west Lothian question? It was a past paper question!!


Isn't the West Lothian question about how the Scottish, welsh and Northern Irish electorate are represented in the English legislature but the English electorate are not represented in the scottish, welsh and Northern Irish legislatures
Original post by JNC198
The HOL can only delay legislation by the parliamentary act of 1929. By the Salisbury convention they are limited in terms of vetoing the 'current' governments manifesto. The HOL cannot call/stop/hinder general elections as they lack legitimation and therefore have no official power to do this! Anyone got anything on the civil service? And have you all looked at the west Lothian question? It was a past paper question!!


And I think the civil service are just ****munchers who work for the government and government ministers
Reply 7
Original post by SirDigbyChicken
And I think the civil service are just ****munchers who work for the government and government ministers


Yeah Lmao!!! The west lothian question also looks towards why the NI, Scottish and welsh MPs have the right to vote just as English MPs and whether they should have this right... I think!
Original post by JNC198
Yeah Lmao!!! The west lothian question also looks towards why the NI, Scottish and welsh MPs have the right to vote just as English MPs and whether they should have this right... I think!


Yeah, I think that they should have the right to vote in the house of commons because although they have devolved legislatures, a lot of laws that affect them are still made in the house of commons so they should get a vote but I don't think that they should be able to vote on issues that only affect the English.
Reply 9
What you saying to the vote of independence for Scotland? I have a feeling this may come up in a round-a-bout way, because it will jeopardise parliamentary sovereignty
Original post by JNC198
What you saying to the vote of independence for Scotland? I have a feeling this may come up in a round-a-bout way, because it will jeopardise parliamentary sovereignty


Why would it jeopardise parliamentary sovereignty, parliament will still be sovereign in the rest of the UK.
Reply 11
Original post by revvingrevision
The Lords can, however, delay legislation for 1 year - they did something like that in 2006 with ID cards, citing Labour's lack of a mandate.

Calling an election does not involve passing legislation.

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