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Quantum Mechanics

Hi, just been reading James Binney's Text on QM, came across this and didn't really understand his mathematical logic.

Let <xψ> < \vec{x} | \psi > be a function of x

<xψ>=ψ(x) < \vec{x} | \psi> = \psi(x)

<xaψ>=ψ(x)aψx+12!(a.ψx)2... < \vec{x} - \vec{a}| \psi> = \psi(x) - \vec{a} \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial \vec{x}} + \frac{1}{2!} (\vec{a}.\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial \vec{x}})^2...

<xaψ>=exp(ax)ψ(x)=exp(a.x)<xψ> <\vec{x} - \vec{a}| \psi> = exp(-\vec{a} \frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}})\psi(x) = exp (-\vec{a}.\frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}}) < x | \psi >

Now this line I don't understand

=<xexp(ia.p)ψ> = <x | exp (\frac{-i\vec{a}.\vec{p}}{\hbar})|\psi>

He mentions using <xpψ>=ix<xψ> <\vec{x} | p | \psi > = -i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}} < \vec{x} | \psi>

I can't really see the connection, I sort see he may be substituting a rearrangement of the momentum operator for x\frac{\partial}{\partial x}

Cheers
(edited 9 years ago)
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Reply 3
Original post by insparato
Hi, just been reading James Binney's Text on QM, came across this and didn't really understand his mathematical logic.

Let <xψ> < \vec{x} | \psi > be a function of x

<xψ>=ψ(x) < \vec{x} | \psi> = \psi(x)

<xaψ>=ψ(x)aψx+12!(a.ψx)2... < \vec{x} - \vec{a}| \psi> = \psi(x) - \vec{a} \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial \vec{x}} + \frac{1}{2!} (\vec{a}.\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial \vec{x}})^2...

<xaψ>=exp(ax)ψ(x)=exp(a.x)<xψ> <\vec{x} - \vec{a}| \psi> = exp(-\vec{a} \frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}})\psi(x) = exp (-\vec{a}.\frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}}) < x | \psi >

Now this line I don't understand

=<xexp(ia.p)ψ> = <x | exp (\frac{-i\vec{a}.\vec{p}}{\hbar})|\psi>

He mentions using <xpψ>=ix<xψ> <\vec{x} | p | \psi > = -i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}} < \vec{x} | \psi>

I can't really see the connection, I sort see he may be substituting a rearrangement of the momentum operator for x\frac{\partial}{\partial x}

Cheers


All that's been done is as you've said i.e. substitute for the momentum operator. In 1D p^=ix    x=1ip^=ip^ \hat{p} = -i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \implies \frac{\partial}{\partial x} = -\frac{1}{i \hbar} \hat{p} = \frac{i}{\hbar} \hat{p}

More generally, for various symmetries then we can construct an operator which evolves the system upon which it acts. In this case, the momentum operator is a generator for spatial symmetry. The Hamiltonian is the generator for symmetry in time. For most cases, the operator associated with evolving such a system is O^=exp(i[parameter]×G^) \hat{O} = \exp(-\frac{i}{\hbar} [\mathrm{parameter}] \times \hat{G}) , where G^\hat{G} is the generator for the relevant symmetry. So for spatial evolution i.e. translation, the parameter is some vector a to displace by and the generator is momentum. For time evolution, it is some time t and the Hamiltonian etc.
(edited 9 years ago)
Reply 4
Cheers, don't know why I was getting myself in knots over that. Thanks for taking the time anyways.

I find his book frustrating and illuminating, it's unlike any other text in QM.

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