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Hi, just been reading James Binney's Text on QM, came across this and didn't really understand his mathematical logic.
Let <x∣ψ> be a function of x
<x∣ψ>=ψ(x)
<x−a∣ψ>=ψ(x)−a∂x∂ψ+2!1(a.∂x∂ψ)2...
<x−a∣ψ>=exp(−a∂x∂)ψ(x)=exp(−a.∂x∂)<x∣ψ>
Now this line I don't understand
=<x∣exp(ℏ−ia.p)∣ψ>
He mentions using <x∣p∣ψ>=−iℏ∂x∂<x∣ψ>
I can't really see the connection, I sort see he may be substituting a rearrangement of the momentum operator for ∂x∂
Cheers
All that's been done is as you've said i.e. substitute for the momentum operator. In 1D p^=−iℏ∂x∂⟹∂x∂=−iℏ1p^=ℏip^
More generally, for various symmetries then we can construct an operator which evolves the system upon which it acts. In this case, the momentum operator is a generator for spatial symmetry. The Hamiltonian is the generator for symmetry in time. For most cases, the operator associated with evolving such a system is O^=exp(−ℏi[parameter]×G^), where G^ is the generator for the relevant symmetry. So for spatial evolution i.e. translation, the parameter is some vector a to displace by and the generator is momentum. For time evolution, it is some time t and the Hamiltonian etc.