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Differential element - Surface Area of Sphere

Can anyone explain how they get this formula in a book from this diagram:



U is the velocity of the particle, r is the radius and a is just the co-ordinate from the center of the particle, so a=r when a extends radially onto the boundary of the sphere.
I think you're omitted too much context to be honest.
Original post by djpailo
Can anyone explain how they get this formula in a book from this diagram:


U is the velocity of the particle, r is the radius and a is just the co-ordinate from the center of the particle, so a=r when a extends radially onto the boundary of the sphere.


I agree with DFranklin need more context. Looking at this I would guess maybe a volume integral transforming dxdydzdxdydz to r2sin(θ)drdθdϕr^2sin(\theta)drd\theta d\phi over 0ϕ2π0\le\phi\le2\pi because that seems similar.
(edited 9 years ago)
Reply 3
I've attached a pdf with the relevant pages.Section 4.3.4, equation 4.97

I successfully got the part in brackets by using r=a.

I think Tom is right, it could be something to do with transforming from dA to Dtheta, and I faintly remember something that a Jacobian is needed but yeah :s
(edited 9 years ago)
Original post by djpailo
I've attached a pdf with the relevant pages.Section 4.3.4, equation 4.97

I successfully got the part in brackets by using r=a.


I was right, it is just a volume integral. You know about integration in polars right? e.g. in 2DdV=rdrdθdV=rdrd\theta?
Reply 5
Original post by tombayes
I was right, it is just a volume integral. You know about integration in polars right? e.g. in 2DdV=rdrdθdV=rdrd\theta?


I remember learning something about it but that's about it. Whats the wiki article of it called?

EDIT:

Okay, I've read some stuff about it. I'll need to read more, but can I just confirm with you guys that they took an integral

0πa2sinθ dθ=\int^\pi_0 a^2 \sin \theta\ d\theta =

that should be 2* pi I don't know how to code that properly
(edited 9 years ago)
Original post by djpailo
I remember learning something about it but that's about it. Whats the wiki article of it called?


Okay got it I think (Disclaimer: I am a Stats/Probability Guy so not an expert on this particular subject but acceptable at vector calculus)

Look at equation (4.92). This is an integral over the sphere's surface (so immediately r=a is constant). Now following the steps given on the sheet we arrive at (4.96) I believe you understand up to here.

Now in (4.97) the problem lies with the dA this is tricky since they are transforming the area into a system consisting of two angles (since r is fixed) now this can reach every point on the sphere. I will call the bit you have in brackets in 4.97 γ\gamma. So KE=12ρc0πγdAKE=\frac{1}{2}\rho_c\int_0^\pi \gamma dA now it helps to think of dA as a volume dV with constant radius which allows us to apply the transformation: dA=a2sinθdϕdθdA=a^2sin\theta d\phi d\theta see: http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcIII/ChangeOfVariables.aspx
so we get: KE=12ρc0πϕ=0ϕ=2πγa2sinθdϕdθKE=\frac{1}{2}\rho_c\int_0^\pi \int_{\phi=0}^{\phi=2\pi} \gamma a^2sin\theta d\phi d\theta
which gives the result.
Reply 7
Thanks, I understand where the 2*pi comes from now.

One thing I was unsure about regarding Equation 4.91 was how they simplified that. I understood that the continuity equation effectively equalized zero so it was adding zero to the equation, but I didn't fully appreciate the identity they must have used to simplify. Anyway that was beyond what I needed in that case.

Having looked at equation 4.96 again, I don't really understand it:

=(r,θ)\nabla = (\partial r , \partial \theta )

so if that is the case, does the θ\partial \theta multiply with 0θ0_\theta component of the unit vector during the dot product operation? Also, why do we haveϕrer\frac{\partial \phi }{ \partial r}\vec{e_r} before then multiplying with the unit vector, er\vec{e_r}.

Should it not be just:
ϕr.er\frac{\partial \phi }{ \partial r}.\vec{e_r}

Why do we need to allocate a new unit vector, why can't we just use n?
(edited 9 years ago)
Reply 8
Original post by tombayes
Okay got it I think (Disclaimer: I am a Stats/Probability Guy so not an expert on this particular subject but acceptable at vector calculus)

Look at equation (4.92). This is an integral over the sphere's surface (so immediately r=a is constant). Now following the steps given on the sheet we arrive at (4.96) I believe you understand up to here.

Now in (4.97) the problem lies with the dA this is tricky since they are transforming the area into a system consisting of two angles (since r is fixed) now this can reach every point on the sphere. I will call the bit you have in brackets in 4.97 γ\gamma. So KE=12ρc0πγdAKE=\frac{1}{2}\rho_c\int_0^\pi \gamma dA now it helps to think of dA as a volume dV with constant radius which allows us to apply the transformation: dA=a2sinθdϕdθdA=a^2sin\theta d\phi d\theta see: http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcIII/ChangeOfVariables.aspx
so we get: KE=12ρc0πϕ=0ϕ=2πγa2sinθdϕdθKE=\frac{1}{2}\rho_c\int_0^\pi \int_{\phi=0}^{\phi=2\pi} \gamma a^2sin\theta d\phi d\theta
which gives the result.



Original post by djpailo
Can anyone explain how they get this formula in a book from this diagram:



U is the velocity of the particle, r is the radius and a is just the co-ordinate from the center of the particle, so a=r when a extends radially onto the boundary of the sphere.



the arguments posed in your discussions are correct


all they did since the integration over fi is independent of the integrand, they pulled 2pi out (since the limits over the sphere are from 0 to 2pi.


the area element on this coordinate system is a^2 sint dtdf (t=theta and f=fi)

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