I could be completely of the mark here as I only started my degree 3 weeks ago but don't you need to show that for the union on 2 sets X,Y that are given as subsets of the reals that there exists some real number such that the absolute value of the union of the sets X and Y is less than that real value for all real values n.
You already know that individually X and Y are bounded so you know that there must exist some real number such that the absolute value of set X is less that that value for all n and the same with set Y.
Obviously it's not a proof but just thinking intuitively it seems obvious that if X and Y are bounded then the set containing elements from X or Y are both bounded if you see what I mean.
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This could be completely wrong but can't you say X is bounded by some real number N_0 and Y is bounded by some real number N_1 so XUY is bounded by N_2:=max(N_1,N_2)?????
Again this could be wrong as I only started learning this stuff about 2 weeks ago haaaa.