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Should Women be paid the same prize money as Men for ALL sports?

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Original post by Reluire
The equal pay in tennis grand slams is a big bugbear for me. The prize money is the same, yet men are expected to play 2 more sets? I don't buy the argument that women aren't capable of 5 sets. Serena Williams would probably slap you for suggesting she couldn't manage 5 sets because she's not as physically able as a man. The prize money should reflect the amount of sport played, in my opinion.


So in 2010 should John Isner and Nicolas Mahut received more prize money than Rafael Nadal and Tomáš Berdych?
Original post by MattBerry96
Their teams like in male cycling

It also has to be said, if they were earning less than the minimum wage in the conventional sense they must be getting pretty crap terms, and beyond that, they can't be that great if the teams don't feel they're worth enough to pay to be able to train full time.
Original post by Patrick Wallace
So in 2010 should John Isner and Nicolas Mahut received more prize money than Rafael Nadal and Tomáš Berdych?


I presume Isner and Mahut played 5 sets whilst Nadal and Berdych played 3? I think in that case it's irrelevant how many sets were played because Nadal and Berdych could have played 5 sets if it came to it. In women's tennis, 5 sets isn't even possible. And as I said in my previous post, I believe women should and can play 5 sets, just like men.
Original post by Reluire
I presume Isner and Mahut played 5 sets whilst Nadal and Berdych played 3? I think in that case it's irrelevant how many sets were played because Nadal and Berdych could have played 5 sets if it came to it. In women's tennis, 5 sets isn't even possible. And as I said in my previous post, I believe women should and can play 5 sets, just like men.

No, they played over 150 games in their first round match, although they were knocked out in the first and second rounds so they're being somewhat pedantic.
Original post by Reluire
I presume Isner and Mahut played 5 sets whilst Nadal and Berdych played 3? I think in that case it's irrelevant how many sets were played because Nadal and Berdych could have played 5 sets if it came to it. In women's tennis, 5 sets isn't even possible. And as I said in my previous post, I believe women should and can play 5 sets, just like men.


That isn't what you said though, you stated that "The prize money should reflect the amount of sport played" you didn't say that 'the prize money should reflect the potential amount of sport played'.
Original post by Jammy Duel
No, they played over 150 games in their first round match, although they were knocked out in the first and second rounds so they're being somewhat pedantic.


Ahh I see.

Original post by Patrick Wallace
That isn't what you said though, you stated that "The prize money should reflect the amount of sport played" you didn't say that 'the prize money should reflect the potential amount of sport played'.


Indeed I did. And so I would now like to revise my statement and say instead that I think the prize money should reflect the potential amount of sport that can be played. If women are able to play 5 sets and it's financially viable for them to be paid as much as men (which has to work on the assumption they can bring in a similar level of interest and sponsorship), then that is the point at which I think they should be paid equally.
Original post by Obiejess
Okay that's different.

Most women are naturally, of a lesser physical ability in general. The whole point of creating a women's competition was to cater for that.

What you're suggesting is like allowing able bodied people to compete in the paralympics because it's only fair, though as we saw with Oscar Pistorius the disabled were allowed to compete in the able bodied olympics.

It kind of defeats the object.

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Woa, how about we keep separate mens and womens sport fullstop. Opening mens competition up to women will open up a whole quandry of equality concerns. In some sports women will actually be able to compete with men and so the men's competition will get very competitive which is unfair for male competitors. A side effect of that will be the men's competition will get more legitimacy and the women's competition will be considered second tier as the best women would likely compete with the men.
(edited 9 years ago)
Original post by Maid Marian
Only if they are doing the same amount of work. The same pay in tennis, for example, is a farce because they only do 3 sets compared to the 5 that men do.


We may as well consider Men's Tennis and Women's Tennis as completely different sports with different rules, like Rugby Union and Rugby League.
I think what people forget about most sports is that there is more to the sports than just the matches and tournaments, even if that's what ultimately matters. If a male player and a female player are both, say, training 10 hours a day 6 days a week all year, does the fact that one may play for half an hour less per match really matter that much?
Of course, you get that economically the woman is worth less, but that's a different argument, although not totally unrelated, to how long they're playing for.
Original post by Reluire
Ahh I see.



Indeed I did. And so I would now like to revise my statement and say instead that I think the prize money should reflect the potential amount of sport that can be played. If women are able to play 5 sets and it's financially viable for them to be paid as much as men (which has to work on the assumption they can bring in a similar level of interest and sponsorship), then that is the point at which I think they should be paid equally.


How are you measuring potential amount of sport that can be played? The number of sets required to win doesn't necessarily reflect the amount of time spent on the court or the number of points played.

There have been quite a few matches where women playing best of 3 sets has lasted a lot longer in both time and points played than men playing best of 5 sets.
Original post by Patrick Wallace
How are you measuring potential amount of sport that can be played? The number of sets required to win doesn't necessarily reflect the amount of time spent on the court or the number of points played.

There have been quite a few matches where women playing best of 3 sets has lasted a lot longer in both time and points played than men playing best of 5 sets.


No, you're right - it doesn't necessarily. But, in most cases it will reflect the amount of sets played. I doubt there have been as many as you're suggesting. There will be isolated examples, but by and large men's tennis involves a lot more play time.

Does it not seem sexist in principle for women not to play 5 sets? Women are physically weaker than men, yes, but professional sportswomen are certainly capable of 5 sets I would say. The fact it is still the case that only up to 3 sets are played by women yet they get the same prize money as men who play up to 5 sets is simply a reflection of this politically correct era we live in where feminists complain at any given opportunity that they're being subjugated by men.

The answer is simple. Allow women to play 5 sets in tennis. By not allowing women to play 5 sets, women are by default being subjugated by the sport. Even the playing fields between both sexes and let them earn whatever they earn. If women earn more than men, fine. If men earn more than women, fine. If they by chance are paid equally, fine. Having the same prize money just to be politically correct is what I think is wrong.
There's a simple solution, remove gender segregation in sports full stop and simply let the best athletes regardless of gender be paid accordingly.
I love the assumption that all men earn the same in sports. Get your head out of your arse.
Absolutely not. Ridiculous.
Reply 74
Level of competition is greater with men. There is generally more and stronger competition relative to that of women's sports.

So making the prize money equal will make it easier for women to be rewarded the same that men have, despite the men having to work harder.

Male sports are way more popular too.

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Reply 75
Original post by Obiejess
Imo, if they work just as hard and achieve the same standard they should be given the oppurtunity to play on the same field as the blokes. But they must meet the standards that the men have to live up to.


This. The sarah taylor/brazilian lasses stories are just sad.
Reply 76
Original post by Jammy Duel
I think what people forget about most sports is that there is more to the sports than just the matches and tournaments, even if that's what ultimately matters. If a male player and a female player are both, say, training 10 hours a day 6 days a week all year, does the fact that one may play for half an hour less per match really matter that much?
Of course, you get that economically the woman is worth less, but that's a different argument, although not totally unrelated, to how long they're playing for.


Untrue in many sports, though I suspect you are posting with a football slant.
Reply 77
Original post by MattBerry96
If the women bring in more revenue then they should be paid accordingly. However with some sports the athletes don't even have a min wage which is ridiculous. For example in cycling many of the women have to work part time jobs and train and race. How can they realistically be expected to pull in more sponsors if they can't race as well due to their disrupted training?


It's not a gender issue though. Small F1 teams have the same problem. (can't spend more, can't win, can't get the big sponsor money)
Original post by Obiejess
No because they're not doing the same job. It's like working for two seperate companies, one which works you way harder but is more successful and expecting the same amount of money.

However I do think women who have the ability should be able to compete in mens sport.

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And should men who don't quite have the ability for mens be able to compete in women's sport? If not, it is unfair that women get two divisions to play in and men do not.
Original post by Doctor_Einstein
And should men who don't quite have the ability for mens be able to compete in women's sport? If not, it is unfair that women get two divisions to play in and men do not.


No. Women are naturally less physically able.

It's like the paralympics. Disabled athletes should be allowed to compete in the paralympics and olympics but not vice versa because they are at a natural disadvantage

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