One final point. There is a semantic trick/confusion being played on on the part of feminists here. I shall hold the feminists hands in explain this obvious point; not to condescend, but to put their beliefs through a stringent analysis whereby there is no room for emotion in clouding their judgement. Their reasoning shall be shown to be flawed through an irrefutable linguistic analysis (just try to refute it; I dare you, I double dare you mother ****er), and if their beliefs to not alter at least somewhat at the end of it, then they simply cannot be debated on any kind of intellectual level.
Lets analyse the two basic statements being contested here:
"Is it my fault for getting so drunk I am vulnerable to rape?" and "Is it my fault the rapist raped me because of this?".
The feminists are setting up this absurd linguistic construction whereby if you conclude the affirmative to the first proposition, you must conclude the negative of the second statement. This is the assumption that their rhetoric rests upon.
Is it true? Well, it is true if there is a semantic/logical contradiction between accepting that the first statement's correct answer is "yes" and "no" to the second. Anything other than this, and the assumption is untrue.
So, lets try to construct a logically possible (ie, non contradictory) set of statements whereby the answer to the first statement is "yes" but the answer to the second is "no". I shall do this by analysing what we actually mean by both sentences.
"Is it my fault for getting so drunk I am vulnerable to rape?" The definition of fault is who is the cause of the subsequent event in the sentence (being so drunk that you're vulnerable to rape). One might be tempted to use the word blame; and this is a perfectly fine wording. You are to blame for (ie the cause of a negative event) for, specifically, getting drunk. However, the connotations of "blame" might, to an uncritical reader, suggest that the victim is blame worthy, therefore responsible to being raped. However, the word "blame", or "the cause of" only refers to the subsequent statement, not the statements within the next sentence. So let suppose yes, you are to blame for getting drunk. But getting drunk causes you to be more vulnerable to being raped. Notice this wording does not imply a causal influence on the rapist that is outside of the rapist's responsibility to control. Therefore, saying "yes" in answer two this question does not imply saying yes to the question of whether the drunk victim is responsible for getting raped.
"Is it my fault the rapist raped me because of this?". As I have shown, there is no semantic entailment caused by accepting that the victim is responsible for being vulnerable to being raped, that therefore the victim is tesponsible for being raped. Because the rapist's actions is not referred in the statement of what the victim is to blame for.
Therefore, you can say both "yes" to the first and "no" to the second statements without contradiction. Therefore, saying "yes" to the first question is NOT blaming the victim for rape. Therefore, people saying that women should, within reason, reduce the likelihood of their being raped is NOT victim blaming, because saying so is not blaming for the victim for rape.
I apologise for this trivial and tedious exercise. But feminists need to understand this so they can stop endangering women with their dangerous rhetoric.