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Why do people act like it's impossible for a woman to rape a man?

I mean like several ways women are coming up with ways to say they were raped without physical force. Like I could come up with about 2 or 3. A woman gets really drunk and has sex with some guy she was too drunk to consent so it's somehow considered rape. A woman gets drunk passes out and has sex with some guy. That's considered rape. A woman is sober but doesn't say yes or no and has sex with a man. This too can be considered rape. If it is said he persuaded her. Now what I don't get is if that's all three scenarios rape dont women do the same to men? Men have sex while they are too drunk to consent sometimes some women persuade/seduce men a man could have not said yes or no when sex was initiated. A man could pass out and a woman could have sexual relations with him. Those would all count as rape. Yet it's like if the roles are reversed its not a real offense. I feel like if it's not an offense with genders switched then it's not rape for a woman if she got too drunk or has regrets or whatever. If this is the case why is it seen as if men can't be raped by women when either scenario could go for either gender?

also someone who is mentally impaired and taken advantage of is far less likely to get it reported if they are male as oppose to female.
(edited 9 years ago)

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Under UK law, rape requires a penis. Females do not have penises.
Those situations would largely be sexual assault and would carry a similar sentence as the comparable rape charge for a man.
OP, I agree with you. US law is slightly more open - I think the wording is something along the lines of 'penetration, no matter how slight, of the mouth, vagina or anus' (not gender-specific), but still.

But I think that regardless of the gender of the people involved, if you have sex with someone who is clearly incapacitated, or unable to even stand up straight without falling over, or clearly not into it whatsoever (see that guy in the news who ****ed a girl who was crying - like, I dunno, if that's not a red flag for somebody then I'm worried), then yeah, you're committing sexual assault.
Original post by minimarshmallow
Under UK law, rape requires a penis. Females do not have penises.
Those situations would largely be sexual assault and would carry a similar sentence as the comparable rape charge for a man.


I think the UK law is mistaken. General rape definitions don't discriminate rape in this way - and rightfully so. Rape simply constitutes unwanted sex, specifically penetration. And a penis is not needed to penetrate someone.

The UK law on rape should be sex-neutral. The act and punishment should be viewed the same, regardless of whether one is male or female.
Original post by minimarshmallow
Under UK law, rape requires a penis. Females do not have penises.
Those situations would largely be sexual assault and would carry a similar sentence as the comparable rape charge for a man.

What?

I'm not in the uk. And in the cases I mentioned there would be a penis involved seeing that men have penises.... I'm very confused by this post.
Reply 5
Original post by Nickierose21
I mean like several ways women are coming up with ways to say they were raped without physical force. Like I could come up with about 2 or 3. A woman gets really drunk and has sex with some guy she was too drunk to consent so it's somehow considered rape. A woman gets drunk passes out and has sex with some guy. That's considered rape. A woman is sober but doesn't say yes or no and has sex with a man. This too an be considered rape. If it is said he persuaded her. Now what I don't get is if that's all three scenarios rape dont women do the same to men? Men have sex while they are too drunk to consent sometimes some women persuade/seduce men a man could have not said yes or no when sex was initiated. A man could pass out and a woman could have sexual relations with him. Those would all count as rape. Yet it's like if the roles are reversed its not a real offense. I feel like if it's not an offense with genders switched then it's not rape for a woman if she got too drunk or has regrets or whatever. If this is the case why is it seen as if men can't be raped by women when either scenario could go for either gender?


Naturally occurances are reduced as a drunk guy is physically less able. But more importantly guys are less likely to report it .

What you're saying is quite broken. It is an offense, I can't tell if you're suggesting it isn't, in which case you're wrong and perpetuating the myth men can't be raped by women. This then leads men not to report it. You're part of the problem here.
Reply 6
Only sexists and feminazi will say that 'men can't be raped'.
Society is ignoring the issue because it doesn't happen that often and because again, the sexist approach: women are sexual prey while men are sexual predators.
(edited 9 years ago)
I thought it wasn't considered rape because a man becoming erect denotes arousal and this consent.

👆 might be out dated though!


Ps I agree it should be gender neutral. However that won't do much for the actual number of rapes against women occurring.
Reply 8
Original post by minimarshmallow
Under UK law, rape requires a penis. Females do not have penises.
Those situations would largely be sexual assault and would carry a similar sentence as the comparable rape charge for a man.


Does it?

Original post by Reluire
I think the UK law is mistaken. General rape definitions don't discriminate rape in this way - and rightfully so. Rape simply constitutes unwanted sex, specifically penetration. And a penis is not needed to penetrate someone.

The UK law on rape should be sex-neutral. The act and punishment should be viewed the same, regardless of whether one is male or female.


I don't think it does.
Reply 9
Minimarshall girl is correct.
The current public narrative on rape is extremely confused. Nearly all the statistics you hear on this subject are either false or heavily distorted through the lens of a particular kind of ideological feminism.

here's a site you might find interesting, this particular page deals with the definition of rape as it differs between males and females:

http://dontneedfeminism.com/post/71294252715/40-of-rapists-are-women-yes-get-over-it

They are US figures but the situation is very similar, and the narrative is identical.

There are a number of studies (I think linked to on the site I provided) which suggest a very strong link between the sexual of abuse of boys by women, and their later offences as abusers of women.

Expect this line of inquiry to make you extremely unpopular.
Original post by молодой гений
OP, I agree with you. US law is slightly more open - I think the wording is something along the lines of 'penetration, no matter how slight, of the mouth, vagina or anus' (not gender-specific), but still.

But I think that regardless of the gender of the people involved, if you have sex with someone who is clearly incapacitated, or unable to even stand up straight without falling over, or clearly not into it whatsoever (see that guy in the news who ****ed a girl who was crying - like, I dunno, if that's not a red flag for somebody then I'm worried), then yeah, you're committing sexual assault.


I always wondered though if both people are drunk. Then how come the man still gets charged with rape and not the woman? I think both should be charged. I think the approach we give to women should also be given to men otherwise it jut seems insulting to women as if we're less and that annoys me. We are both mentally equal therefore should be allowed equal rights.
Original post by Quady
Naturally occurances are reduced as a drunk guy is physically less able. But more importantly guys are less likely to report it .

What you're saying is quite broken. It is an offense, I can't tell if you're suggesting it isn't, in which case you're wrong and perpetuating the myth men can't be raped by women. This then leads men not to report it. You're part of the problem here.


When did I say that this post is kind of bizarre.

Being able to perform doesn't mean consent so I don't get your point.
Because of patriarchy.
Original post by SiminaM
Only sexists and feminazi will say that 'men can't be raped'.
Society is ignoring the issue because it doesn't happen that often and because again, the sexist approach: women are sexual prey while men are sexual predators.


Yeah i feel like this has a lot to do with it.
Original post by Quady
I don't think it does.


You don't think what does?
Original post by minimarshmallow
Under UK law, rape requires a penis. Females do not have penises.
Those situations would largely be sexual assault and would carry a similar sentence as the comparable rape charge for a man.


This is the problem. Similar does not equal the same. And I'd argue that the sentence is actually a lot less, as women don't tend to be vilified in the media when convicted of 'sexual assault' as when a man is convicted of rape. They serve their prison sentence and she can then start her life over, whereas men generally cannot, even if fully rehabilitated and remorseful of their crime.
Original post by SnooFnoo
I thought it wasn't considered rape because a man becoming erect denotes arousal and this consent.

👆 might be out dated though!


Ps I agree it should be gender neutral. However that won't do much for the actual number of rapes against women occurring.


No that's a bodily reaction. Women can get erect during rape as well. That doesn't mean consent. That means there was unwanted stimulation.

If society accepted the fact that men and women can be violated then it would do a lot for underreporting in general.
Though it's categorised as "sexual assault" because (cis) women don't have penises, a conviction would carry similar punishment/time to a man convicted of rape, as far as I'm aware. (Any law folks who can weigh in on this?)

Personally I think it's important to discuss men's issues like the "toxic masculinity" which says "men always want sex, men can't be victims of rape" without trying to sabotage the increasing progressiveness of our understanding of women's rape...
It's only rape if she's unattractive.
It can be proved if the woman looks like this:

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