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OCR Physics A G482 June 2014

In question 2v, can someone explain why the p.d = zero? The mark scheme doesn't make it clear, and my only guess is that the energy left of points X and Z is equal to the energy right of points X and Z, so they will just cancel.
Original post by crazyHOQ
In question 2v, can someone explain why the p.d = zero? The mark scheme doesn't make it clear, and my only guess is that the energy left of points X and Z is equal to the energy right of points X and Z, so they will just cancel.
Hi. You need to post a scan of the relevant question and mark scheme if you want a quick response.

Thanks. :smile:
Reply 2
Original post by uberteknik
Hi. You need to post a scan of the relevant question and mark scheme if you want a quick response.

Thanks. :smile:


I've attached the question paper only as ive only got a scan of that
Original post by runny4
I've attached the question paper only as ive only got a scan of that
????????

Is this the right paper?
Reply 4
Original post by uberteknik
????????

Is this the right paper?

oh sorry
this is the one
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Cheers mate


Many Thanks
Original post by runny4
oh sorry
this is the one
No worries. :smile:

In order to drive charge (current flow) and hence perform work, there must exist a charge conduction path and a difference in energy potential between two points in a circuit.

The work potential (voltage) at both points X and Z in the circuit are identical, hence no potential to perform work exists between them.
Reply 7
Original post by uberteknik
No worries. :smile:

In order to drive charge (current flow) and hence perform work, there must exist a charge conduction path and a difference in energy potential between two points in a circuit.

The work potential (voltage) at both points X and Z in the circuit are identical, hence no potential to perform work exists between them.


Also for question 5b, in the examiner's report it says
Most candidates did not appreciate that it was necessary to state that the oscillations are in antiphase and just wrote inadequate statements about destructive interference not completely cancelling.
Why couldn't you talk about destructive interference and why can't you say the waves are in antiphase?
On the mark scheme, which I unfortunately don't have a scan of, it says for a minimum the two oscillations are in antiphase and there is a reultant amplitude so sound will be heard.

And for question 6bi it says on the examiner's report,
Most candidates just repeated the question when explaining plane polarisation, failing to define clearly the plane or direction of oscillation. Candidates should be encouraged to think of a polarised wave as oscillating in a certain direction rather than in a single plane, and to think of the vector nature of the oscillation and answer in terms of components.
Isn't oscillating in a plane and in a single direction the same thing?

Finally, for question 1b, i'll just type up the mark scheme:
In the light parallel combination less than or about 1 ohm
so V across lamp less than 0.5V/ small compared to V across 25 ohm
In the dark parallel combination about 25 ohm
so V across lamp approx 6V so lamp on.

Please could you explain all of this question to me?

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