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The Police only there to protect the rich - do you agree?

The Police only there to protect the rich - do you agree?

On the basis of the UK? - I know this is a common point people make in the US for example.
Reply 1
No
Reply 2
Original post by Reue
No


Thanks for clearing that up. :wink:
Reply 3
No.
No
Reply 6
There is a hell of a lot of legislation that pertains solely to property and property, they say, is 9/10ths of the law. On that basis you could make that argument - but there's also a lot of things that are illegal because they violate individual sovereignty, or 'property' that cannot be bought with material wealth; assault, murder, rape and so on. I think the idea that the police 'exist to protect the rich; is too simplistic

I do, however, think the Police as an institution is a result of our sociopolitical order being a design of capitalism. We didn't have a centralised, government/monarchy mandated police force until the the Peel Act and other legislation in the 1830's and that was seen as a necessity following the industrial revolution and mass urban migration. A 'standing' organised police force was needed to enforce order and minimise unrest because such things maximised profit!

Away from theory...I think you'd find it difficult to argue (either anecdotally or through evidence) that the police, CPS, and other legal institutions that deal with criminality treat citizens from every income bracket equally. They don't.
Reply 7
No.
No - it may appear that way when they are working on finding criminals who have stolen large value items.
However, remember that the rich people will have the high value items that are worth stealing!
Really, police are called out to and assist with anything - domestic violence, assault, burglary, indecency - whatever!

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