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Binomial Expansion as n gets very large

In my Analysis lecture, we were looking at the limit as n approaches infinity of

(1+rn)n(1 + \dfrac{r}{n})^n

So by applying the binomial formula we get

1+nrn+n(n1)r22n2+n(n1)(n2)r36n3+...+n(n1)...(nk+1)k!rknk[br]1 + n\dfrac{r}{n} + \dfrac{n(n-1)r^2}{2n^2} + \dfrac{n(n-1)(n-2)r^3}{6n^3} +... +\dfrac{n(n-1)...(n-k+1)}{k!}\dfrac{r^k}{n^k}[br]

I am happy with that, this is where I'm not happy. I agree with the first three terms of this sum but no more, so to clarify it's r^3 term and beyond I am unhappy with.

1+r+(11n)r22+(11n)r33!+...+(11n)1k!rk1 + r + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^2}{2} +(1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^3}{3!} + ... + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k

I can see that n(n1)(n2)n3\dfrac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{n^3} tends to 1, as n approaches infinity, and I have seen graphically it approaches 11n1-\dfrac{1}{n}. But I cannot see how it is done algebraically. Also, I'm not clear on how the general term becomes (11n)1k!rk(1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k

Thanks for your replies.
(edited 8 years ago)
Original post by theraresheep


1 + r + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^2}{2} +(1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^3}{3!} + ... + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k


Thanks for your replies.

Are you sure it doesn't say:

<1+r+(11n)r22+(11n)r33!+...+(11n)1k!rk<1 + r + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^2}{2} +(1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^3}{3!} + ... + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k

Note the initial inequality.
Original post by ghostwalker
Are you sure it doesn't say:

<1+r+(11n)r22+(11n)r33!+...+(11n)1k!rk<1 + r + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^2}{2} +(1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^3}{3!} + ... + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k

Note the initial inequality.


No, there is an equals sign.
Reply 3
Original post by theraresheep
No, there is an equals sign.


The "equal" sign could possibly be the approximation sign.
Original post by theraresheep
No, there is an equals sign.


Then you have a typo. Plug in some small numbers and evaluate the expression, and you'll see they're not equal.
Original post by ghostwalker
Then you have a typo. Plug in some small numbers and evaluate the expression, and you'll see they're not equal.


OK, thank you.
Original post by ghostwalker
Are you sure it doesn't say:

<1+r+(11n)r22+(11n)r33!+...+(11n)1k!rk<1 + r + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^2}{2} +(1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^3}{3!} + ... + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k

Note the initial inequality.
I don't think the issue can be inequality v.s. equality, because (I assume) the aim is to show that the limit is

1+r+r2/2!+r3/3!+...1 + r + r^2/2! + r^3/3! + ...

and so to use a squeeze approach it's sufficient (and simpler) to show (1+rn)n<1+r+r2/2!+r3/3!+...(1+\frac{r}{n})^n < 1 + r + r^2/2! + r^3/3! + ...

The tricky side is finding a lower bound for (1+rn)n(1+\frac{r}{n})^n and I think you'd have to have some very explicit working that would show you're taking approximations (truncating the sum etc) for that.
Original post by DFranklin
I don't think the issue can be inequality v.s. equality, because (I assume) the aim is to show that the limit is

1+r+r2/2!+r3/3!+...1 + r + r^2/2! + r^3/3! + ...


This is true, we are aiming to show the limit is the above
Original post by theraresheep
This is true, we are aiming to show the limit is the above
To be clear, it's still the case that the step you're unhappy about is invalid. It just seems to me that there must be something fairly vital left out here, I don't think it's the kind of mistake someone would make by typoing.
Reply 9
Original post by theraresheep
This is true, we are aiming to show the limit is the above


Then it definitely seems like your 'equals' sign should be a 'less than or equals' sign.

It looks like you're trying to find an upper bound here for the limit of the sequence; once you've done that, there should be another half to the proof which gives you a lower bound for the limit - in fact, the lower limit and the upper limit turn out to be the same, which enables you to make the statement that

n=0xnn!=limn(1+xn)n\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^\infty \dfrac{x^n}{n!} = \lim_{n \to \infty} (1 + \dfrac{x}{n})^n
Original post by theraresheep
In my Analysis lecture, we were looking at the limit as n approaches infinity of

(1+rn)n(1 + \dfrac{r}{n})^n

So by applying the binomial formula we get

1+nrn+n(n1)r22n2+n(n1)(n2)r36n3+...+n(n1)...(nk+1)k!rknk[br]1 + n\dfrac{r}{n} + \dfrac{n(n-1)r^2}{2n^2} + \dfrac{n(n-1)(n-2)r^3}{6n^3} +... +\dfrac{n(n-1)...(n-k+1)}{k!}\dfrac{r^k}{n^k}[br]

I am happy with that, this is where I'm not happy. I agree with the first three terms of this sum but no more, so to clarify it's r^3 term and beyond I am unhappy with.

1+r+(11n)r22+(11n)r33!+...+(11n)1k!rk1 + r + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^2}{2} +(1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^3}{3!} + ... + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k

I can see that n(n1)(n2)n3\dfrac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{n^3} tends to 1, as n approaches infinity, and I have seen graphically it approaches 11n1-\dfrac{1}{n}. But I cannot see how it is done algebraically. Also, I'm not clear on how the general term becomes (11n)1k!rk(1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k

Thanks for your replies.


I went to a similar or the same lecture. In my notes I have it as
1+r+(11n)r22+(11n)(12n)r33!+...+(11n)(12n)...(1k1n)1k!rk+...1 + r + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^2}{2} +(1-\dfrac{1}{n})(1-\dfrac{2}{n})\dfrac{r^3}{3!} + ... + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})(1 - \dfrac{2}{n})...(1-\dfrac{k-1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k +...



Is by any chance the second lecture now?
Original post by morgan8002
I went to a similar or the same lecture. In my notes I have it as
1+r+(11n)r22+(11n)(12n)r33!+...+(11n)(12n)...(1k1n)1k!rk+...1 + r + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^2}{2} +(1-\dfrac{1}{n})(1-\dfrac{2}{n})\dfrac{r^3}{3!} + ... + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})(1 - \dfrac{2}{n})...(1-\dfrac{k-1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k +...



Is by any chance the second lecture now?


I am doing M137 @ Warwick.
Original post by morgan8002
I went to a similar or the same lecture. In my notes I have it as
1+r+(11n)r22+(11n)(12n)r33!+...+(11n)(12n)...(1k1n)1k!rk+...1 + r + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})\dfrac{r^2}{2} +(1-\dfrac{1}{n})(1-\dfrac{2}{n})\dfrac{r^3}{3!} + ... + (1-\dfrac{1}{n})(1 - \dfrac{2}{n})...(1-\dfrac{k-1}{n})\dfrac{1}{k!}r^k +...Yes, this is a correct equality. Seems a bit of a drastic typo (in the OP./ lecture) to omit about half the bracketed terms ?!?
Original post by theraresheep
I am doing M137 @ Warwick.

As am I.

Original post by DFranklin
Yes, this is a correct equality. Seems a bit of a drastic typo (in the OP./ lecture) to omit about half the bracketed terms ?!?


I think there was a bit of a rush to get everything down in the last few seconds of the lecture(all these long sums) and that step and the next weren't well explained so OP may have made some mistakes copying it down. Also, I can't remember what the lecturer wrote on the board, so if there was a typo on the board I might not have written it down exactly, but written the closest thing that made sense.
I think it was just to give an example of a limit before making the course becomes more formal.
(edited 8 years ago)
Reply 14
Original post by morgan8002
As am I.



I think there was a bit of a rush to get everything down in the last few seconds of the lecture(all these long sums) and that step and the next weren't well explained so OP may have made some mistakes copying it down. Also, I can't remember what the lecturer wrote on the board, so if there was a typo on the board I might not have written it down exactly, but written the closest thing that made sense.
I think it was just to give an example of a limit before making the course becomes more formal.


As I said earlier, this looks just like (a garbled version of) one half of the standard proof - the half that gives an upper limit for the series.

See here...

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