STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 Solutions
Maths and statistics discussion, revision, exam and homework help.
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Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 SolutionsWell their series was:(Original post by DFranklin)
Huh? Why do you think there's an r^(3n+1) term in S_n(r)?
S_n(r) = r + r^2 + r^4 + r^5 + r^7 + r^8 + r^10 + ... + r^(3n-1)
Let n = 3. Then the last term would be r^(3*3 - 1) = r^8
Consider the series U_n = 3n - 1, it gives:
u_1 = 2
u_2 = 5
u_3 = 8
If you then take r^(U_n) (so basically r^2, r^5, r^8), the terms left out from S_n(r) are r, r^4 and r^7.
Consider the series U2_n = 1, 4, 7, 10.... Its nth term would be 3n + 1 (if you include n = 0). If you then took r^(U_n) (which would give r, r^4, r^7) you'd get all the terms that the r^(U_n) series missed out.
Which is why I think S_n(r) can be expressed as r^(U_n) + r^(U2_n).
And the last term in the series is given by r^(3n-1). So if n was 3, S_n(r) would be everything up to and including r^8 which is essentially:
S_3(r) = r + r^2 + r^4 + r^5 + r^7 + r^8.
And that sum is equal to the formula I gave.Last edited by Swayum; 22-05-2007 at 23:28. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 SolutionsI don't think it is though. If you do the iterations from n = 1 to n = 3, using the formula r^(3n - 1), you get:
r^(3*1 - 1) = r^2
r^(3*2 - 1) = r^5
r^(3*3 - 1) = r^8
Where as their series suggests that it should give r + r^2 + r^4 + r^5 + r^7 + r^8 or maybe r + r^2 + r^4.
Although actually I think I'm totally misunderstanding the question.Last edited by Swayum; 22-05-2007 at 23:34. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 SolutionsHaving pondered this a bit, I couldn't find a nice way without basically solving the whole thing at the same time. (The big problem I had was showing you can't have two 1s - maybe I missed something).(Original post by nota bene)
Okay, do you think it is better if I prove it is impossible (which I accidentally did in my working as I slipped on an argument and went two steps wrong which I quickly realised). Because I tried to see an obvious way of dismissing the possibility of 2+2 but didn't find any information under the points that were dealt with . (Well if you chose 2+2 strategy you'll end up with 112 on one die and 2 on the other and then trying to move on with this proves impossible when we add the 3 to 112 (can't add a 4 etc.) which makes it impossible to get what we want).
First make the easy progress at the "edges" of the freq table:
Since we can't get a 2, we know that there can't be a 1 on both dice. But since we can get a 3, we know exactly one die has a 1. Call that dice A and the other one B. Then B must have a 2, so we know 1 \in A and 2 \in B.
Now, there are 6 ways of getting 11 and no ways of getting 12. So there isn't a 6 on both dice. So we either have 2 5's on 1 die and 3 6's on the other, or 2 6's on one die and 3 5's on the other. (Where the die with 6's can also have 5's).
Now it gets harder. Since we have 2 ways of getting 3, either 1,1 \in A, 2 \in B or 1 \in A, 2,2 \in B.
Suppose 1,1 \in A, 2 \in B. We know there's exactly one way of getting a 4, so we must have 2 \in A (as if 3\in B we get 2 ways). So in fact we have 1,1,2 \in A, 2 \in B. Then there's exactly one way of getting a 5, so either 3 \in A or 3\in B (but not both). Now consider how we can find 4 ways of making 6. We can't combine 2 3's. We can have at most one 4 \in A (because A must contain at least 2 sixes or 2 fives). So we need some 5's \in B. But then each 5 combines with 2 1's, so each 5 contributes 2 ways. So as the number of ways is even, 4 \notin A. So then B contains two 5's, and so A must contain 3 sixes. So A = 1,1,2,6,6,6 and 2,5,5 \in B (and 1,6 \notin B). But then there are only 2 ways of making 7.
So we must have 1 \in A, 2,2 \in B. So then there's one way of getting a 4, so 3 \in B, 2 \notin A. And then 1 way of getting a 5, so 4 \in B, 3 \notin A. So 1\in A, 2,3 \notin A, 2,2,3,4 \in B. Suppose B is the die with the sixes, then B = 2,2,3,4,6,6. Then 1,5,5,5 \in A, 2,3,6 \notin A. So A = 1,4,4,5,5,5. But then we choosing 2 from B and 5 from A gives 6 ways of making 7.
So B must contain the 5's, so B = 2,2,3,4,5,5. So 1,6,6,6\in A, 2,3 \not in A. So we can now reduce to the possibilities A = {1,4,4,6,6,6}, A = {1,4,5,6,6,6} or A = {1,5,5,6,6,6}. If A = {1,4,4,6,6,6} there are only 2 ways of making 7, if A = {1,5,5,6,6,6] there are 4 ways. So the only possibility is A = {1,4,5,6,6,6}.
(I've still been a bit sloppy about explicitly saying what can't be in the sets). -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 SolutionsNo, you'd get r^4, r^7, r^10. You have to start from n=1 if the r^(3n-1) part of what you're doing is going to make sense.(Original post by DeathAwaitsU)
Well their series was:
S_n(r) = r + r^2 + r^4 + r^5 + r^7 + r^8 + r^10 + ... + r^(3n-1)
Let n = 3. Then the last term would be r^(3*3 - 1) = r^8
Consider the series U_n = 3n - 1, it gives:
u_1 = 2
u_2 = 5
u_3 = 8
If you then take r^(U_n) (so basically r^2, r^5, r^8), the terms left out from S_n(r) are r, r^4 and r^7.
Consider the series U2_n = 1, 4, 7, 10.... Its nth term would be 3n + 1 (if you include n = 0).
If you then took r^(U_n) (which would give r, r^4, r^7) you'd get all the terms that the r^(U_n) series missed out.Last edited by DFranklin; 23-05-2007 at 00:02. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 Solutions
STEP I question 11.
Introduce cartesian axes into the problem, such that the x-axis lies along BC and the y-axis is perpendicular and passes through the midpoint. Let BC = 2a, such that A is the point (-a, 2a), B is the point (-a, 0), C is the point (a, 0) and D is the point (a, 2a). Model the wire as three particles, each of mass m, located at (-a, a), (0, 0) and (a, a). The centre of mass has coordinates (0, y) (by symmetry). Then the total mass M = 3m, and My = ma + ma = 2ma, so y = 2/3 a.
(See diagram for the next part.)
The angle required (between directions of BC) is θ. Since γ = 180 - α - β, and θ = 180 - γ (or simply by vertically opposite angles), θ = α + β. From the diagram,
tan α = 4/3
tan β = 2/3
and so tan θ = (4/3 + 2/3) / (1 - (4/3)(2/3)) = 2 / (1 - 8/9) = 2 / (1/9) = 18.Last edited by generalebriety; 23-05-2007 at 00:11. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 Solutions
Also Q12...
Let the angle between the vertical and the rod be θ. Take GPE=0 at the horizontal line through B.
Let the extension of the spring CD be x. Then the length of CD is (a+x).
a+x = 2a sin(θ/2) --> x = a(2 sin (θ/2) - 1).
Unparseable or potentially dangerous latex formula. Error 5: Image dimensions are out of bounds: 423x651\displaystyle \text{EPE} = \frac{\lambda a^2 (2 \sin \frac{\theta}{2} - 1)^2}{2a} = \frac{1}{2} \lambda a(2 \sin \frac{\theta}{2} - 1)^2. \\
\text{GPE} = 2mga \cos \theta. \\ \\
\text{Potential energy of the system:} \\
V = 2mga \cos \theta + \frac{1}{2} \lambda a(4 \sin^2 \frac{\theta}{2} - 4 \sin \frac{\theta}{2} + 1) \\
= mga(2 - 4 \sin^2 \frac{\theta}{2}) + 2\lambda a \sin^2 \frac{\theta}{2} - 2\lambda a\sin \frac{\theta}{2} + \frac{1}{2}\lambda a \\
= 2(\lambda a - 2mga)\sin^2 \frac{\theta}{2} - 2 \lambda a \sin \frac{\theta}{2} + \text{constant} \\
\frac{\text{d}V}{\text{d}\theta} = 2(\lambda a - 2mga) \sin \frac{\theta}{2} \cos \frac{\theta}{2} - \lambda a\cos \frac{\theta}{2} \\
= a\cos \frac{\theta}{2} (2(\lambda - 2mg)\sin \frac{\theta}{2} - \lambda). \\
\frac{\text{d}V}{\text{d}\theta} = 0 \Rightarrow \cos \frac{\theta}{2} = 0 \text{ (n/a)}, \; \sin \frac{\theta}{2} = \frac{\lambda}{2(\lambda - 2mg)}. \\
\lambda > 4mg \Rightarrow \lambda - 2mg > 2mg \\
\Rightarrow 0 < \frac{mg}{\lambda - 2mg} < \frac{1}{2} \\
\Rightarrow \frac{1}{2} < \sin \frac{\theta}{2} < 1 \\
\Rightarrow 30 < \frac{\theta}{2} < 90 \\
\Rightarrow 60 < \theta < 180.Last edited by generalebriety; 23-05-2007 at 00:42. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 Solutions
And STEP II Q7:
a (mod 5) | 2a^2 (mod 5)
0 | 0
1 | 2
2 | 3
3 | 3
4 | 2
b (mod 5) | b^2 (mod 5)
0 | 0
1 | 1
2 | 4
3 | 4
4 | 1
So 2a^2 + b^2 is divisible by 5 if and only if 2a^2 + b^2 = 0 (mod 5), which happens if and only if a = 0 (mod 5), b = 0 (mod 5).
2a^2 + b^2 = 5c^2. (*)
Assume a = 0 (mod 5), b = 0 (mod 5). Then a = 5p, b = 5q.
Then 2a^2 + b^2 = 5c^2
25(2p^2 + q^2) = 5c^2
5(2p^2 + q^2) = c^2
therefore c^2 = 0 (mod 5), and so c = 0 (mod 5). Then c = 5r.
Then 5(2p^2 + q^2) = c^2
5(2p^2 + q^2) = 25r^2
2p^2 + q^2 = 5r^2.
But this is equivalent to (*).
Hence, by the method of infinite descent, a, b and c can be divided by 5 infinitely many times and still remain integers.
Therefore the only solution is a = b = c = 0.
Ok, that's me done for the day.
Are these solutions going on the wiki? If not, would it be a nice idea to do so?
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Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 Solutions
10 STEP I)modulous of elascticity=x and extension=e
<BCD=<BDC= Y
tension in wire= xe/a
for equib: moments about B:
xesinY= 2amgsin(180-2Y)=2amgsin2Y
e=a(2-2cos(180-2Y))^0.5 -a
=a(2+2cos2Y)^0.5 -a
=a(2 + 4cos^2 Y -2)^0.5 -a
=a(2cosY -1)
a(2cosY-1)xsinY=4amgsinYcosY
(2cosY-1)x=4mgcosY
cosY= x/(2x-4mg)
if rod is in equib away from wall (ie not against it):
Y>0 so cosY<1
x/(2x-4mg)<1
=> x>4mg -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 Solutions
13 STEP I)
i)time taken to reach speed u:
dv/dt= F/M
v=Ft/M => t= uM/F
after it reaches speed u:
Mv dv/dt= Fu
=> (M/2)v^2= Fut +C
when t=0, v=u
(M/2)(v^2 -u^2)=Fut
=> t= (M/2Fu)(v^2-u^2)
so time taken to reach speed v=
(M/2Fu)(v^2-u^2) + uM/F (P=Fu)
=(M/2P)(v^2-u^2) + Mu^2/P
=(M/2P)(v^2+u^2) -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 Solutions
13 ii)
distance travelled before speed reaches u:
initial speed=0, v=u, a=F/M
using v^2= u^2 +2as
s= u^2M/2F= Mu^3/2P
distance travelled after speed reaches u:
Mv^2 dv/dx=Fu
(M/3)( v^3- u^3)= Fux (if x=0 when v=u)
=> x= (M/3P)(v^3-u^3)
total distance travelled= (M/3P)(v^3- u^3) + Mu^3/2P
=(M/6P)(2v^3 + u^3) -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 Solutions
I think I did Q2 in the Further Maths A.
But it seems quite easy so I've probably made a mistake. It's still red on the front page, so if no one else has typed it out already, I'll do so~
[edit] Here it is anyway.

By the product/sum formulae that no one remembers.
![= ½[\frac{1}{m+n} \sin(m+n)x + \frac{1}{m-n} \sin(m-n)x]_0 ^{2\pi} = ½[\frac{1}{m+n} \sin(m+n)x + \frac{1}{m-n} \sin(m-n)x]_0 ^{2\pi}](http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/latexrender/pictures/60/605bede0d35774c3039c11e294eec2d0.png)
But if m=±n, one of the fractions explodes. So in that case the question is:


![= ½[x+\frac{1}{2m} \sin{2mx}]_0 ^{2\pi} = ½[x+\frac{1}{2m} \sin{2mx}]_0 ^{2\pi}](http://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/latexrender/pictures/3e/3ec3dd522e69272c1ef0bde01e469355.png)

If m=n=0, the integral turns to
.
As for the second bit.
Let x = sinh²t
dx = 2sinhtcosht dt




Ignoring the +c for now

Which you can rewrite using the log form of arsinh.Last edited by Rabite; 23-05-2007 at 13:54. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 SolutionsThe same problem I had, so I don't think we are missing anything. In your solution you had to disprove the (1,1,2) as well, although you did it in a much better way by starting to consider the ways to combine the sum of 11, which cuts down a bit on the testing of possibilities.(Original post by DFranklin)
Having pondered this a bit, I couldn't find a nice way without basically solving the whole thing at the same time. (The big problem I had was showing you can't have two 1s - maybe I missed something).
(I think I'll stay away from any further tedious questions on testing possibilities until I learn to explain, or I'll scan up scribbled unreadable notes...)
Now to the next STEP question...
STEP I Q 15
Probability an Ascii gives the same answer twice is TT+FF (T=True, F=False) Hence
So, given that an Ascii tells the same answer twice in succession the probability of lying is
and therefore the probability of truth is 1-P(lying) = 9/10.
Given that a tribe member tells the same answer twice (as in the scenario) the probability of him being Ascii is possible to calculate via Bayes theorem, and Biscii is 1-P(A). By Bayes, P(A|two consequtive answers)=
Now we know P(A)=11/16, P(two|A)=5/8, P(A')=5/16 and P(two|A')=1
Calculating this gives
and therefore Probability of Biscii given two consecutive answers is
. Now the probability of lie is
Therefore probability of truth is 1-P(lie) and thus
as desired.
Following the scenario we are now given three consecutive answers, working with the same principle as above we calculate P(three|A) to be FFF+TTT =
(The other components of the earlier calculation stays the same)
So, by Bayes, P(A|three consequtive answers)=

Therefore probability of Biscii giving three consecutive answers is
.
Now we need the probability for lie given it is an Ascii giving three consecutive answers. This is given by
So, now P(truth)=1-P(lie) and P(lie)=
So P(truth) is
. Therefore the man shall not follow the given answer (i.e. left); he shall go to the right, with the probability
of coming to the town.
Last edited by nota bene; 23-05-2007 at 14:11. -
Re: STEP Maths I, II, III 1993 SolutionsIt looked easy, but in hindsight, I think this was actually a pretty nasty question. It's very tricky to express all the reasoning without ending up with pages upon pages of cases.(Original post by nota bene)
The same problem I had, so I don't think we are missing anything. In your solution you had to disprove the (1,1,2) as well, although you did it in a much better way by starting to consider the ways to combine the sum of 11, which cuts down a bit on the testing of possibilities.
It's so much nicer when you get a "show..." question isn't it?Now to the next STEP question...

Are these solutions going on the wiki? If not, would it be a nice idea to do so?
