When is it true that, if established, estoppel by convention has the same effect as promissory estoppel?
Compare: Chitty on Contracts: General Principles, Vol 1, 31st Edition, 3-111: Effect of estoppel by convention [page 373] (available on google books).
It says that
"In cases of promissory estoppel, the promisor or representor is not estopped from denying that the promise of representation has been made: on the contrary...
... Where, on the other hand, the requirements of estoppel by convention are satisfied, then this type of estoppel normally operates to prevent a party from denying a fact, i.e. that the assumed promise has been made, or that a promise contains the assumed term: it does not specify the legal effects of the assumed promise or term."
So it seems that, if established, estoppel by convention cannot on its own enforce a promise, unless it is accompanied by either consideration or promissory estoppel.
Is this right? What's wrong with this understanding?
Is it true that estoppel by convention has the same effect as promissory estoppel?
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