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# M1 friction force diagram

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1. hi for part c of this question, why is the inequality sign used rather than the equal sign. I thought the equation is just f=u R . I did part a and b. Thanks
2. (Original post by coconut64)
hi for part c of this question, why is the inequality sign used rather than the equal sign. I thought the equation is just f=u R . I did part a and b. Thanks
An inequality is used as the value of friction can vary up to a maximum value of uR, otherwise, if it was constant, if there was no other force, it would move due to frictions which isn't possible

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