Hey,
How do the formulae,
induced emf = (-) rate of change of magnetic flux linkage
and
induced emf = BANwsin(wt)
corroborate each other?
I.e. let's say a coil rotates 90 degrees. Hence, the change in induced emf would be its maximum value. According to the second equation, this would be BANw.
Hence, from the second equation, induced emf = BANw = BAN(2pie)/T
However, when looking at the first equation: through the 90 degree rotation, the change in magnetic flux linkage would also equal its maximum value, which is BAN.
Hence, from first equation, induced emf = BAN/T
Therefore the two equations do not lead to the same result???