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# Mathematicians! Can you figure this out?

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1. I will algebraically prove to you that 1=2.

1. Let a = b
2. Then a² = ab
3. a² + a² = a² + ab
4. 2a² = a² + ab
5. 2a² - 2ab = a² +ab - 2ab
6. Hence, 2a² - 2ab = a² - ab
This can be written as 2(a² - ab) = 1(a² -ab)
and cancelling the (a² - ab) from both sides gives 1=2.

Can figure out in which step the fallacy lies? First one to give me the correct answer, along with an explanation of why that step is invalid, gets a personal rating and a follow on TSR

2. Dividing by 0 gives an undefined result.

So you've said so , not 1=2, you can't cancel 0.
3. a^2-ab = 0, and you can't divide by 0.
4. The mistake lies in the last step. As a squared equals ab, a squared minus ab is equal to 0, so in the last step you are actually dividing by zero, which isn't defined.
5. Yeh what they said ^^

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